J
Jerusha
Guest
Tom, just go ahead thinking.
You will sooner or later realize that you are not God.
Ad hominem and inaccurate.
You should deal with the evidence regardless of it source (rather than trying to divert attention from fact by saying FARMS/FAIR).
That being said, the source is a small part me and my readings and a large part the readings of your favorite (sarcasm) Catholic.
Charity, TOm
I have been following this thread and I hope you realize that your attempts to "rationalize" and "reasonably interpret" what the ECF and other theologians have said are only harming your cause.
The main problem I keep seeing repeated, is that you use these writings much the way that many of our Christian brothers and sisters use the Bible.
This is why the Church is such a GIFT from our Lord! Without the protection of the Holy Spirit through the authority passed down through the apostles, we would be left to figure out for ourselves what the early church fathers were saying.. We would be left to figure out for ourselves what the Bible meant. We would be left to look for "scholarly" people such as yourself, who have a great way with words and information and philosophy, and have to trust your understanding of ideas.
I will not deny that your assertations are "logical" and "reasonable." But as I stated early in this thread, "reasonable" is NOT the way that truth opperates. Truth is absolute, steadfast, and unchanging. It cannot be conformed to the whim of philosophical quandaries and musings.. It doesn't change just because you choose to view it through your own lense.
Of course I believe in the development of Doctrine. Develop as to expose; like developing film into a picture or growth as in a bloom develops into an apple. But it seems to me you want to use it as creatio ex nihilo.Before I get into this let me say that Catholic theology developed. I just did. Cardinal Newman makes this quite clear with numerous examples. Development does not make falsity necessarily. If it is your position that a developed theology is not a true theology, you can leave the Catholic Church as soon as you sufficiently study the ECF. Of course there is no church I know of that you could join if development was disqualifying. Few folks abandon their theology when they recognize development. I am just claiming that there is development and that the monotheism of Aquinas is not the monotheism of Irenaeus.
Yes, I know, I have been having conversations with Mormons for years and also was raised LDS.**REBECCA: **You keep saying this, but the answer is obvious.
**RA: **Let it go. He keeps saying it, and saying it, and saying it, and saying it, and saying it, and saying it, and saying it ⦠because that is his mental hook, so to speak, that heās latched onto in order to rationalize his view against facts/history.
ā¦]
So, donāt beat your head too much. :banghead:
RA
Tom,I think there is much to what you say. I would say it a little differently because a LDS cannot believe that the natural growth of a human is into a god. Instead, it is through the grace of God, the incarnation and atonement of Christ, and His lifting us up that we might become gods.
So for most non-LDS Christians, God is ontologically different in a way that is unbridgeable or in a way that God refuses to bridge. Thus, the deified in non-LDS thought do not partake fully of Godās nature, but partake partially/derivatively of Godās nature. For those who adopt this limited deification view, it is not that God is selfish with His divinity but that there is a uniqueness associated with the fullness of divinity possessed by God (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit).
The LDS Christian has seldom answered the question āwhat is divinity as such?ā but whatever the answer is, men can partake of the divine nature in its fullness. This does not mean we do so naturally of our own power because it is by grace that we receive this. This does not mean that we become equal to God, because God is always the one who lifted us up to what He is and we always rightly worship Him.
Now, in my recent posts to Richard (#437 and #438) I offered some of what I thought ādivinity as suchā is best understood to be in LDS thought. I also suggested that I believe this is far more Biblical then āousia based divinity present within Catholicism. I also suggested that it is the absence of a solid āousia based divinity in the Bible that allowed the Bible and the pre-Nicene ECF to speak so BOLDLY of deification (like LDS not like post-Nicene ECF).
So, I agree we have found a difference in what LDS and non-LDS mean when we speak of deification.
I said as much here:
Again, if I am correct in this statement then I think Catholicism and its commitment to tradition has a problem. As a Catholic I would believe that divinity as such was āousia based, but I would believe that deified humans would become dual natured persons like Christ (this is a minority view within Catholicism though).
No ECF before Nicea when talking about human deification (human theosis / āmen becoming godsā) placed any limits on the FINAL state of deified man. Instead, they along with modern LDS boldly stated that through the grace of Christ we would become gods. They did not say ābut only in the communicable attributes.ā After Nicea it became increasingly popular to state that there were limits upon what it meant for humans to become gods.
Charity, TOm
āDerivative participationā is a term NO ECF before Nicea (or after as far as I know) used. It comes from the 2007 or 2008 book Deification and Grace. I first introduced this term to this discussion here:Say the ECF didnāt put a limit to that which God might grant us humans through our derivative participation in his nature, that still doesnāt change the fact that God is qualitatively different than us humans and that is a rather important point in the thinking. In fact, I think thatās what all this hostility from the non LDS side is really about.
This is IMO a very well stated outline of Athanasiusās position. That men can become gods through Christ was one of Athanasiusās main arguments for why Christ simply must be fully God. Arius said that Jesus Christ was clearly not impassible and immutable and therefore He could not be fully God (which is pretty solid logic too).I consider it this way. The reason Athanasius was so hell bent on promoting the Trinity is because unless Christ was fully God and human the bridge, the infinite chasm (the qualitative difference) between us and God could not be bridged. One way to view this insistence is to see Athanasiusā concern about promoting the notion of theosis-- but the other side of the coin is his assumption, and the assumption of Arius too, that God is in fact qualitatively different from us so that the problem is posed in the first place.
This is why I have tried to approach this in two ways. I have suggested that statements #1 and #2 are not present nor evidenced in the pre-Nicene dialogue. (Statement #1 was there, but it was condemned as a modalistic heresy). If these are not fully developed reality pre-Nicea, then the āimpossibility or beyond_the_pail_nessā of man being FULLY deified should not be read into the pre-Nicene Fathers. That is what everyone is doing when they claim that the pre-Nicene Fathers did not mean full /robust deification because their concept of God was different. The pre-Nicea ECF NEVER limited the final state of deified man because they did not recognize the tension that is so evident in the post Nicene church!This is no small matter. If we arenāt talking about the same being when we talk about āGodā the rest of our dialogue will break apart.
What qualifications?Robust deification is the bold declaration that men can become gods like God the Son without the qualifications commonly placed upon these statements today.
Because you donāt have any qualifications, I assume you mean deification, and when mormon writings contain the phrase āman will be like God,ā they mean ālikeā in every way without qualification.Qualifications like āmen can become gods, but they will always possess the human nature and only participated derivatively of the divine nature.ā BTW, the preceding was not a direct quote of any Catholic here. I did not intend for it to be. It is the impression that I get from what Catholics are saying. If I am wrong please correct.
The early Church were monotheist just like the Church is today, so when I read the writings of the early Church I understand them in that way. Monotheism logically precludes the existence of another God
The monotheism of Irenaeus and Aquinas are the same. I think Irenaeus might not have the exact same understanding of trinitarianism as Aquinas but it is still the Christian understanding of God.
They were still monotheists.For Christ to be subordinate to God the Father to the extent offered in the pre-Nicene Fathers there is a distinction that you will not find in Aquinasā view of divine simplicity or even in Athanasius.
How does Judaism understand subordination?
If you pardon my dos centavos, I think you are definitely right on the money. Another red letter dayTom,
The last paragraph is my ultimate point. I donāt find the notion of whether or not we could hold dual natures if God so willed it such a problem. If God wills it, it will be done. I believe that God wants to give us good gifts and complete our joy, so whatever steps are necessary for that he will do for us and I donāt worry so much what exact form that may take. Of course it is possible because all things are possible with God. I just have to trust him on what form that will take.
The question is: if the LDS view of God and the Catholic view of God are qualitatively different beings, and only one view is correct (I agree with both points) how much does that actually matter in worship? I think this is an important and interesting question to pursue. Exactly how much about God must we have right for our prayers to be effacacious? Exactly how much should we have right in our creeds (or articles of faith, whatever) to find favor with God?
Iāll be honest here, I donāt know. I imagine some person born and raised in the heart of Southern Utah who never was exposed much to other ideas and is very sincere in his desire to serve God would find his prayers answered and that God would work with what knowledge and language that person has to give him the best idea of how to please God. I imagine the same is true of a person born in the Amazonian jungle. But I think we can both agree that if we are given the means and the exposure necessary to truly understand these divergent views it behooves us to try with our entire capacity to come to the most correct view- because that activity in itself demonstrates a desire to please God. I think we can both agree, Catholic, Protestant or Mormon, that if a person is exposed but just does not care either way that that personās sincerity is questionable and therefore their relationship with God possibly quite superficial.
But, can any more than that be said? Iām not sure.
They were monotheist, but not in the absolute monotheism of modern Jews or Moslems. And they did not use the Nicene and post-Nicene terms.They were still monotheists.
The Bible IMO (and surely in your opinion) teaches that Christ is divine. And yet Christ is not the same person as the Father. And yet there is one God. How is there one God according to the Bible. IMO the strongest hints are within John. John in a few places relates where Christ said that He and the Father are one. Interestingly, Jesus says that the disciples should be one ājust as we areā (John 17:11, NAB) AND that the disciples should be one āas you, Father, are in me and I in you, that they may be in us, that the world may believe that you send me.ā (John 17:21, NAB). It seems clear to me that if God the Father and God the Son are one in the same way that the disciples are called to be one, the Bible is (Jesus Christās words are) not talking about metaphysical monotheism.āI shall attempt to persuade youā¦that there is said to be, another God and Lord subject to the Maker of all things⦠(Justin, Dialogue With Trypho, ch. 56)
They were monotheist, but not in the absolute monotheism
Iām sorryā¦but how can you make statements like that and not just sit back and???
The full statement was:Iām sorryā¦but how can you make statements like that and not just sit back and ???
I do not know how you can even suggest that the statement is not obviously true. It is true.They were monotheist, but not in the absolute monotheism of modern Jews or Moslems.
I donāt know your definition of Ancient but the Jews of 200BC to present are monotheists.Modern Jews do not believe Christ is divine. They are absolute monotheists. Ancient Jews ā¦ā¦ā¦
Justin is a monotheist (or so you seem to claim and I would generally), but he speaks of āanother God.ā
Justin was a monotheist because he speaks of one God and Angels. He uses god and angel as synonyms but clearly one God.āI shall attempt to persuade youā¦that there is said to be, another God and Lord subject to the Maker of all things⦠(Justin, Dialogue With Trypho, ch. 56)
Dialogue with Trypho:
It is monotheism that is the background of the Church Fathers.I shall attempt to persuade you, since you have understood the Scriptures, [of the truth] of what I say, that there is, and that there is said to be, another God and Lord subject to the Maker of all things; who is also called an Angel, because He announces to men whatsoever the Maker of all thingsāabove whom there is no other Godāwishes to announce to them.
āLikelyā? It is clear that the Hebrews struggled with paganism. They believed that pagan gods existed and held powers. They would often fall into worshiping pagan gods.Stephen168,
Modern Jews do not believe Christ is divine. They are absolute monotheists. Ancient Jews where likely a combination of (1)Monarchical Monotheists that believe there is ONE GOD who is truly God and others are subordinate (in some cases) and false (in other cases) and (2)Communal or Social Monotheist where the subordinate God/Gods are united into a unity that is One God. Some scholars even suggest that Jews embraced Monolotry (there is one God for us and we must be faithful to Him, but there are other gods for other folks).
They kept falling into the worship, or belief, in pagan gods. And kept trying correct their view to that of One God. They erred, not God.They were monotheist, but not in the absolute monotheism of modern Jews or Moslems.
Of course they didnāt! They do not belief Godās revelation of His Son Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit.And they did not use the Nicene and post-Nicene terms.
St. Justin is a monotheist (or so you seem to claim and I would generally), but he speaks of āanother God.ā Again, you have taken this out of context. Justin Martyr is explaing to a Jew how Jesus is found in the OT. And further, all catholics today refer to the Father, Son and Holy Spirit as God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit.Irenaeus will only say there is ONE GOD when he refers to the Father. There are modern EO scholars today who believe that the ONE GOD is the Father. And yet these EOs and Irenaeus claim that Christ is divine (and the EOs embrace Nicea and the next 6 councils as authoritative).
Indeed, unity with God is the goal of all Catholics.The Bible IMO (and surely in your opinion) teaches that Christ is divine. And yet Christ is not the same person as the Father. And yet there is one God. How is there one God according to the Bible. IMO the strongest hints are within John. John in a few places relates where Christ said that He and the Father are one. Interestingly, Jesus says that the disciples should be one ājust as we areā (John 17:11, NAB) AND that the disciples should be one āas you, Father, are in me and I in you, that they may be in us, that the world may believe that you send me.ā (John 17:21, NAB). It seems clear to me that if God the Father and God the Son are one in the same way that the disciples are called to be one, the Bible is (Jesus Christās words are) not talking about metaphysical monotheism.
This is a non-comparison. You canāt claim to hold to the ECF teaching of unity while ignoring their teachings to not introduce a multiplicity of gods. Which, is what you have done with this entire post (and others).So, you are correct that the ECF were monotheists, but modern Jews would not call them monotheist. You claim to be a monotheist, but Moslems would not call you a monotheist. I claim to be a monotheist and (if you understood my views on Godās oneness) you would probably not call me a monotheist, but some Catholic (and Protestant) scholars would as I embrace a Social Trinity like they do.
It is a clear teaching of the Bible, it is a clear teaching of the ECFās. What you are objecting to is the language employed by the later Fathers. The concepts and beliefs did not change. How we can describe, say in words, with our mere human understanding of GOD, changes and improves.The pre-Nicene ECF were not Augustinian Trinitarians and this is not a clear teaching of the Bible. So yes, monotheist, but how are they monotheists?