M
Montie_Claunch
Guest
I heard a protestant talk about Tyndale and how he shows the Catholic Church to be a horrid corrupt institution of man. Who is Tyndale? And what went on with him and the Church? Thanks and God bless.
What was his Agenda? How was he changing the bible?William Tyndale decided to write his own version of the bible along with some help from Martin Luther. Tyndale didn’t have the qualifications to translate the bible into English and was specifically told not to do so. In fact, writing your own version was illegal at the time and had been so since 1408 when John Wycliff wrote his corrupt bible.
Protestants will vehemently insist that he was executed for translating the bible into English, but he could have left it in Latin and still have been executed. Whether the punishment fit the crime may be up to debate, but the fact remains that he was well aware he was committing heresy by changing the bible to fit his agenda, and he knew he was brazenly committing a crime.
Not True - the Church herself commissioned many bibles to be copied in the vernacular long before Tyndale and Luther. I believe the first vernacular bible was around 1100 AD. I’m probably off on that date but it was still many, many years before the so called reformers. There were many languages in circulation before the reformers.Much of Tyndale’s translation eventually was used in the King James Version of the Bible. His problem was translating the bible into the vernacular at a time that the Catholic Church desired only for the latin Vulgate to be used. For a more balanced exposition of Tyndale than the posts above, please see the following:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tyndale
Correct translations like the Vulgate for instance? Where, due to Jerome’s incorrect translation from the Hebrew, Moses coming down from Mt. Sinai was said to have “horns” rather than his face shining? Or, again due to incorrect translation, John the Baptist was held to be crying “do penance” in the Wilderness as opposed to “repent”? Both of these mistranslations, for example, were pointed out by Erasmus (who remained Catholic of course) during the time period of the Reformation. The truth is that the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible. There are at least two rational reasons that the Church could have taken this action: (1) the Church was afraid that untrained, dumb, lay people would misunderstand the Scriptures; or (2) the Church was afraid that not-so-dumb lay persons might see that the Church had not faithfully taught them what was contained in the Scriptures. Make a choice. The Anglican Church did the same thing for a period of time after Henry VIII’s break with Rome.Not True - the Church herself commissioned many bibles to be copied in the vernacular long before Tyndale and Luther. I believe the first vernacular bible was around 1100 AD. I’m probably off on that date but it was still many, many years before the so called reformers. There were many languages in circulation before the reformers.
The Church had no problem with bibles in the vernacular at all. The problem was that people like Tyndale and Luther and others before them (the Albegensians) translated incorrectly because they were not trained to do such things. They translated because they had agendas to fulfill - to make the bible say what they thought it meant. Therefore the translations were faulty and they succeeded in changing the plain meaning of scripture to fit their personal interpretations. That’s why those bibles were burned.
It was and is the job of the Church to protect the truth of scripture and to see that the faithful have a true copy of the Word of God - not some faulty interpretation.
false dichotomy based on a false assumption (“the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible”).The truth is that the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible. There are at least two rational reasons that the Church could have taken this action: (1) the Church was afraid that untrained, dumb, lay people would misunderstand the Scriptures; or (2) the Church was afraid that not-so-dumb lay persons might see that the Church had not faithfully taught them what was contained in the Scriptures.
I’m afraid that the assumption is not false, but factual. The reasoning behind the position of the Church on the issue may be open to debate.false dichotomy based on a false assumption (“the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible”).
it’s factual, eh?I’m afraid that the assumption is not false, but factual. The reasoning behind the position of the Church on the issue may be open to debate.
Your two options are neither charitable. The fact of the matter is that prior to the invention of the printing press, literacy in Christendom beyond what we would call 1st grade level today was less than 10% and may have been as low as 3-5%. Despite your attempt to defane the Church with a motive, the fact of the matter illiteracy was the issue. What is your motive to have such attribute such an uncharitable motive to the Church?Correct translations like the Vulgate for instance? Where, due to Jerome’s incorrect translation from the Hebrew, Moses coming down from Mt. Sinai was said to have “horns” rather than his face shining? Or, again due to incorrect translation, John the Baptist was held to be crying “do penance” in the Wilderness as opposed to “repent”? Both of these mistranslations, for example, were pointed out by Erasmus (who remained Catholic of course) during the time period of the Reformation. The truth is that the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible. There are at least two rational reasons that the Church could have taken this action: (1) the Church was afraid that untrained, dumb, lay people would misunderstand the Scriptures; or (2) the Church was afraid that not-so-dumb lay persons might see that the Church had not faithfully taught them what was contained in the Scriptures. Make a choice. The Anglican Church did the same thing for a period of time after Henry VIII’s break with Rome.
The original translation into Latin was a translation into the vernacular. And there were, as you say, many translations into later vernaculars before the Reformers. Such facts don’t fit very conveniently into Protestant agendas though, and so get quietly ignored.Not True - the Church herself commissioned many bibles to be copied in the vernacular long before Tyndale and Luther. I believe the first vernacular bible was around 1100 AD.
Old lies die hard.The truth is that the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible.
It was well before that. As even the Wikipedia article on Tyndale notes, vernacular translations dated back to the 7th century (the Venerable Bede’s English version of the Gospels was an example).I believe the first vernacular bible was around 1100 AD. I’m probably off on that date but it was still many, many years before the so called reformers
That more or less summarizes the problem. In that respect, it was little different than a translation that would come out of the Watchtower. When you are deliberately choosing to translate passages in order to create the impression that your opponents’ position can’t be found in the text, that is hardly supportable. As to the sinister implications, the fact that the Church not only allowed but supported Erasmus’s own efforts at translation demonstrates quite clearly that they weren’t opposed to translation by people who weren’t out to push a theological agenda.They translated because they had agendas to fulfill - to make the bible say what they thought it meant.
The truth is that the Catholic Church didn’t particularly care either way apart from people deliberately editing the Bible to push their own theological agenda, and they had ample evidence of people doing so in the form of the admitted heretic Wyclif. If they had thought that Luther and Tyndale had anything better in mind, they would not have had any opposition. Ironically, there were already better German translations available at the time that were widely available, so in Luther’s case, there wasn’t even a need for his translation.The truth is that the Catholic Church did not want lay persons to be able to read the bible.
At least you admit that there are other reasons. Granted, the other reasons pretty much defeat your point, but you have the virtue of admitting the possibility of other reasons, which is something.There are at least two rational reasons that the Church could have taken this action
I don’t think the Church was the least bit worried about the people reading the Scriptures, because no one who was “dumb” and “untrained” could read. They just didn’t want people to perceive the misrepresentations of Luther and Tyndale as being reflective of the actual Scripture.(1) the Church was afraid that untrained, dumb, lay people would misunderstand the Scriptures
Given that there were plenty of Greek and vernacular translations floating around at the time, this would just have been silly. Anyone who could read could read Latin, and the Church did nothing to suppress proficiency in other languages (indeed, Erasmus is a good example of people doing just that). Perhaps the most glaring flaw in your reasoning is that the Greeks had the same soteriological beliefs that you condemn, and … well … they spoke Greek and had the Scriptures in Greek!(2) the Church was afraid that not-so-dumb lay persons might see that the Church had not faithfully taught them what was contained in the Scriptures
You’re confusing facts and reasons yourself. The fact was that they suppressed Tyndale’s translation. You’ve invented the reason that they allegedly wanted to keep “the Bible” from the laity, a reason that the factual record makes clear cannot have been the actual reason for the suppression.I’m afraid that the assumption is not false, but factual.
I’ve not borne false witness. Look at what I said in my previous posts:The reason why the assumption that Catholics would want to hide the Bible because it is contrary to the faith is a common lie and easily refuted by any thinking person.
If the Bible was contrary to the faith then no Catholic Bible scholar would in good concience stay in the Church. Yet there are thousands upon thousands of well learned priests who read, copied and studied the Bible for hundreds of years, even before Martin Luther came around. If this assumption was true then we would have had the thousands of denominations that exist today after a few hundred years of Sola Scriptura within the first thousand years of Christianity. Since the Catholic Church fully believes the Bible is God’s truth, it has always been very cautious of it’s mis-representation.
It is like the protective father staying in the room as his daughter watches a movie with her boyfriend.
Attributing motives to a group you do not belong to is bearing false witness. The Catholic Church exists to maintain truth, to say that it has other intentions is to twist truth and attribute a motive that the Catholic Church does not hold.
This would be like me saying that Protestants want everyone to worship the devil. Most Protestants want people to read the Bible and follow Jesus. This is what I learned at Calvary Chapel.
To attribute a different motive than what they profess is wrong.
In Christ
Scylla
And you might want to present the context for the quote, which makes the REASON for the Pope’s statement in this regard quite obvious.First, you might find this interesting from the Catholic Encyclopedia:
They weren’t limiting the reading of Scripture except among people who weren’t capable of distinguishing whether what they were reading was Scripture or not. Surely you aren’t saying that you want people to read false Bibles passed off in the name of Sacred Scripture!I personally find it offensive on a number of levels that the Church would limit any lay persons’ reading of Scripture in the vernacular, even if the action is taken in the “best interests” of the readers. The Scriptures were written to be read.
On the contrary, the article you cited proves it to be hooey. They were not worried about the laity misunderstanding the Scriptures. They were worried about the laity being deceived into believing that something was Scripture when it wasn’t.If you look at the citations I posted from the Catholic Encyclopedia, it would appear that my suggested possibility no. 1 above was pretty much on the money.