T
Timothy17
Guest
This is false. Marriage is still predominantly a religious act, based on religious custom, even and especially in the United States. Certainly by any definition of traditionally, even more so.Marriage is traditionally a religious act, but that is not the case in the US.
As you are extending on a falsehood this theory is reduced to a thesis. You need evidence to support a theory.The US gov, and the POTUS by extension, seeks to govern in a secular fashion.
However, marriage is not “secular in nature.” This does not follow.Therefore, when a government imposes law/regulations on marriage they should be secular in nature.
They should follow the law.So, why should a secular government follow the traditional religious traditions?
Or rather the law is often based on Christian dogma, beliefs, and culture.The backbone of the US is based around secular law, even if it has parallels to religious dogma.
It’s not an “if” there is a reason. There is no reason to define it other than what it is.So, if there’s a reason for marriage to be defined as between a man and women
The exact opposite argument could be easily stated based on what you have provided so far.then it must be ambiguous to religion for US law to consider it.
This is illogical again. Laws against murder don’t represent murderers fairly, for example.If this law doesn’t represent every one fairly then it should be removed,
Owing to irrational, illogical and unsubstantiated theories you mean ?hence we see things like DADT being overturned.
Nature, at minimum, imposes the reason. Tradition imposes the reason. The well-being and continuity of the State and soceity imposes yet another, powerful reason. It’s the “secular” desire to overturn it that is devoid of any reasoning.This marriage law falls in the same vein. There is no good secular reason to impose this arbitrary definition.
Pax Christi,
Tim