US Council of Bishops changing Bible?

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A revised translation is not “changing the Bible” as long as one is sincerely trying to translate the original languages.

The change to “virgin” would be in the Isaiah prophecy, where the word used is not the specific one for virgin, but a more general one. While the Gospels apply that prophecy to the virginal conception of Jesus, most likely the reference being made at the time was to the birth of the future King Hezekiah, to a young but obviously not virginal mother.

The rendering in the Gospels will remain “virgin,” since there the specific Greek word for virgin is used. Likewise, it will still be asserted in various places that Mary was a virgin when Jesus was conceived and born, just like always.

Usagi
 
FaustinaClare said:
msnbc.msn.com/id/42215497/ns/us_news-life

The most disconcerting thing for me is the changing of “virgin” to “young maiden” in regards to Mary. This will only cause controversy!! What do you guys think?
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We need to stop messing with translations, because the meanings will change over years. Being “politically correct” is not my bag.
We should stick as close to the original writings as possible.
I won’t be purchasing the USCCB’s “New American Bible” (NAB). The word ‘Virgin’ is very important and included in the Protestant bibles as well.

In the USA several things that were incorrectly translated in the “CCC 2nd Ed” caused the Vatican to step in and make certain they were fixed. That is why the correct edition was first published in March 2000 in the USA, (dark green cover), even though the CCC was promulgated by the Pope in 1992. This link will show all the original errors and corrections. scborromeo.org/ccc/updates.htm
 
Without expressing my opinion either way, it should be noted that translation is an art, not a science. That means that it isn’t necessarily a “plug X and Y, get Z” process. There are a lot of variables. One such is the aforementioned word which is translated “virgin.” The variation comes from the different versions: the Septuagint presumably changed the word in Isaiah to “virgin,” where it is supposed that the original Hebrew used a word that was more general, “young maiden.” The presumption is that the Hebrew version we have that post-dates all the earliest Greek Septuagint versions by several hundred years is contiguous with the Hebrew through the ages, and not a back-translation from the Greek back into Hebrew.

The translations are apparently (from my understanding) following the guidelines for translations released from the Vatican which also guided the new Missal translation.

As for the implications, I have no comment. Hopefully I don’t come off as a know-it-all know-nothing.
 
Its simple.what did the original meaning of the words(word) mean?If it can actually besided upon then use it.If no one can determine what the word meant but if the CC can come to a meaning which is more in accord with other bible passages and interpret its true meaning that way then use it.The Church has always relied on another of verses taken as a whole to arrive at meanings.
 
Let us remember that the USCCB all by itself is not the Catholic Church. Nor is it the Magisterium.
The Catholic Church does not use NAB.
 
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