Now you are placing words into my post that don’t exist. I never said Paul says scripture corrects the Apostles. The Apostles gave us scripture. Paul is saying scripture corrects period. That means any teachings on faith need to coincide with scripture.
And how does this contradict Catholic teaching?
And yes that includes heresy, and any doctrines of faith introduced that are not found in scripture. With regard to 3:15 yes sacred writings are OT. But NT is also sacred and considered scripture. 2 Peter 3 labels Paul’s writings as scripture among others. Anything inspired by GOD is considered scripture. And yes your argument falls apart.
You haven’t produced a single iota of evidence in the above that the Bible teaches it is the final authority. Your logic goes, Paul says that the OT scripture should be used for correction. Peter says Paul’s writings are Scripture. Therefore, the Bible is the final authority.

That’s not apparent at all in what you’ve said.
I didn’t say Roman said tradition trumps scripture. STOP placing your words into my posts. We’re speaking of church authority. I stated scripture is the final authority. Roman stated scripture is authoritative because it’s historically accurate but not the ultimate authority. I responded that that the Bible is not a history book. You can’t claim authority from something that is not the ultimate authority.
What does any of this do with demonstrating a Biblical proof for the Bible being the final authority?
No I understand completely how the church works. The church holds tradition equal to scripture. It’s not. Tradition has to be validated against scripture.
You’ve produced nothing to back up your statement, so I suppose we must take that statement on YOUR authority. Where did you get your authority?
Yes the Apostles are dead in this life. They are not alive to validate these supposed traditions.
They don’t need to be, they are part of Church history. Such as the veneration of the saints.
And Apostolic does not mean authority passed down from Jesus. Apostolic simply means teachings of the Apostles PERIOD. The Roman Catholic Church has extended the meaning to now include authority and succession. Catholic simply means universal. It’s taken from the Greek word katholicos which is an adjective meaning universal. Yet you Capitalize it and use it as a label. Learn some church history.
A brighter person might have noticed that I capitalized One, Holy, and Apostolic as well, and would not have drawn the conclusion that I did not understand the meaning of the word catholic.
No the immaculate conception is found nowhere in scripture.
Another person might have noticed that I used the word “implict”.
It’s gymnastic interpretations of scripture placing meaning into words that don’t belong.
Anyone interested in where the teaching comes from can read another thread on the Immaculate Conception and on the papal documents, but it is based on much, much, more than this below:
I guess when Matthew tells us that before Mary and Joseph came together using the Greek word synerchomai for come together it couldn’t possibly have anything to do with them having marital relations. Yet synerchomai is a verb meaning conjugal cohabitation. In other words living together having sex. But no the RCC uses a non-canonical gospel the Infancy Gospel of James to justify its position.
The perpetual virginity of Mary comes from more than just this source, as you should know. I cannot speak to the Greek word for synerchomai.
Sorry dear heart you stand corrected. The list is canon received by the councils yes. **But if the list is infallible then that means the church accounted for everything that COULD be considered infallible. ** NO, it most certainly DOES NOT.That would mean no writings outside of the infallible list can be used to justify doctrines of faith. That would include the writings of the ECFs and other works used like the infancy Gospel of James. And the official canon most certainly does affect oral tradition. If it doesn’t then you place oral tradition on its own with no authoritative oversight. Can’t happen.
You are completely incorrect that the Church determined all that was infallible at the closing of the canon, and history demonstrates it beyond any discussion.
If you were right, then that would mean that from the 4th century onward the Church would have rejected all of its teaching in Sacred Tradition! If you were right, then the Church of the 4th century would look like the Lutheran church, for all intents and purposes.
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