T
Tina
Guest
Proud2bRC said:Deuteronomy 23
*Exclusion From the Assembly *
1 No one who has been emasculated by crushing or cutting may enter the assembly of the LORD .
Thank you!
Proud2bRC said:Deuteronomy 23
*Exclusion From the Assembly *
1 No one who has been emasculated by crushing or cutting may enter the assembly of the LORD .
SarahSmile said:Th****at is something that your husband shoul have talked over with you before~hand… now you should pray for your husband’s soul
SarahSmile said:**You are totally right!! Openness is required… but i think that **OpusDei is confused with sexual intercourse. This is required, its to consummate the marriage vows.
Thanks! Yes, I’m sure this can be quite controversial. Yet I also know that couples can enter into a “consecrated marriage” where they decide beforehand not to have intimate relations because of special circumstances. So how does this fit in?Didi,
Another point of clarification:
Infertility is an impediment to marriage, and grounds for a declaration of nullity. Knowledge of that impediment may not be present at the time of marriage, of course, therefore not impeding the sacrament. Marriage not only demands openness to life, but also the ability. This can be quite controversial as you can imagine!
God bless!
Wow! this is long, lol, just kinding you are find, I have so much to learn! about this! the number that you are use/talking about ! are they in the Catholic bible? yes? thank you for your prayers! and Everyone here too!Tina, that is so sad! Perhaps God is calling you to have another child. I’m sure you’ll need some help convincing him to reverse it ,so I have a some thoughts that may help. My husband wanted to do the same thing a couple of years ago because he thought it was only the Pope who thought it was wrong (only the Pope:tsktsk: !) So I did a little looking around and found (I’ve kept this stuff around just in case the thought creeps up on him again) in 78 AD in a letter of Barnabas he called it “wicked”. In 98AD Clement of Alexandria said that it “does harm to nature”. In 225 Hypplytus said that people who do this are “heretics”. At the Council of Nicea in 325 it was said that people who prevent children from being born are barbarians. In 375 Epiphanius said to use sex only to satify makes us eager for corruption. In 795 it was said that people who do this evil act do not retain the reality of marriage and that it is poison to a marriage. In 388 it was said that it is forbidden and a worse sin than fornication. In 400 it was said that it is a shameful act that is cruel and turns wives into harlots. In 401 it is called a damnable sin agaist nature. In addition to what St. John Crysostom said (in my previous post) he said that it was evil, filthy, injures the wife and a grevious sin to prvent the beginning of life is an abomination. St. Jerome (393) said it was an unimaginable sin. Sorry this is so long but maybe it will help convince your hubby. My prayers are with you!
Thanks! That really helps clarify for me.Didi,
You are right…I am just terrible at making my point. INTENDED infertility is an impediment, however, unintended (which is the case most of the time) is not. As with all sin, intent is the important point, as well as prior knowledge. I hope I’ve helped and not muddied the water too much!!!http://forums.catholic-questions.org/images/icons/icon11.gif
early teaching! ok cook thanks DaveTina,
Our Bible is the same as yours except for 7 OT books and portions of Daniel and Esther that were demoted to an appendix by Martin Luther in the 16th century. The 7 OT books are: Tobit, Judith, 1 & 2 Maccabees, Wisdom, Sirach, Baruch. These books are found in the earliest versions of the Bible in Christian history, and are still considered inspired books of the Holy Bible by both Catholics and Orthodox, and in a ambiguous way, by the Anglicans, despite Protestant objections of the 16th century. They were part of the Septuagint, the Greek Bible that the apostles used in the first century.
Thanks 1988, I was thinking why does Baptists/Protestant! don’t use the other books 7 OT! and so on! I remember my Grandmother talking about this! when I was a little girl, she was a Lutheran! I just remember very little.
Lorik is referring to teachings of the early Church. Think of them as the most ancient Bible commentaries. They are not inspired writings, but their antiquity lends much credibility to their trustworthiness.
The New American Bible online can be found here.
usccb.org/nab/bible/
God bless,
Dave
No problem here! thanks, LorikThose numbers are the years in which those comments were recorded. Sorry I should have been more clear.
Thats wonderful that you have that book, I have it right here with me on the computer table!!Thank you for referring to Christoper West, he is one of the sources I used. In his book “About Sex & Marriage”, Ch.3, #9, page 54; "No, sex isn’t everything in marriage. But it is so essential to what marriage is that if ther’s no possibility of intercourse ever happening, there’s no possibility of marriage ever happening. To clarify, it has to be definitive and perpetual impotence."
I was equating impotence with infertility, which, in the case of a man, can be the same thing. Especially, when it is the result of surgery; which was my initial point. Canon 1099, the Pope’s “Theology of the Body” homilies and “Gaudium et Spes” are all very clear on this point.
Thanks!
Infertility is NOT an impediment to marriage or grounds for an annulment. Impotence is. Perhaps you got those two mixed up.Didi,
Another point of clarification:
Infertility is an impediment to marriage, and grounds for a declaration of nullity. Knowledge of that impediment may not be present at the time of marriage, of course, therefore not impeding the sacrament. Marriage not only demands openness to life, but also the ability. This can be quite controversial as you can imagine!
God bless!
Thank you for referring to Christoper West, he is one of the sources I used. In his book “About Sex & Marriage”, Ch.3, #9, page 54; "No, sex isn’t everything in marriage. But it is so essential to what marriage is that if ther’s no possibility of intercourse ever happening, there’s no possibility of marriage ever happening. To clarify, it has to be definitive and perpetual impotence."
Were not Joseph and Mary in this situation? Due to her perpetual virginity there was no posibility of intercourse yet they were still a family and a marriage still took place. I have never read Mr. West’s Book. Does it explain this conflict better?
**Deuteronomy 23The Bible is very clear on this in Deut.23:2.