They did for certain cases, adultery and homosexuality were allowed. Women didn’t get to a trial before the Sanhedrin nor before the Roman Procurator.
A woman would not have been brought before the Sanhedrin for committing adultery. Her husband was the judge and prosecutor along with the mob who threw the stones with a Jewish official as witness.
If the above was true (according to your opinion), then why did you even ask the seemingly nonsensical question, below? Were you just trying to be contradictory? Or, were you hoping no one would notice?
Would Jesus have treated the woman differently in a formal trial by the Sanhedrin ?
Also, according to your post, you’ll have to explain St Stephens stoning to death, see Acts 7:54-60
As @Agathon already answered, that was a simple case of a “lynching”, or plain old “mob rule”. After the Crucifixion of Jesus, the Jews became more and more bold in their defiance of Roman law, especially when it came to their persecution of the early Christians.
Technicality, essentially it was required to fast from doing work on the Sabbath.
In the Bible, the word “fasting” or “fast” is almost always used in reference to abstaining from food. You can call it a technicality all you want, it refers to food. The Pharisees were complaining that the Disciples were working on the Sabbath, when they were just gathering something to eat.
When the Pharisees saw this, they said to him, “See, your disciples are doing what is unlawful to do on the sabbath.”3He said to them,“Have you not read what David did when he and his companions were hungry, he went into the house of God and ate the bread of offering,which neither he nor his companions but only the priests could lawfully eat? Matthew 12:2-4
You missed the most significant line in that passage:
"Matthew 12: [4] How he entered into the house of God, and did eat the loaves of proposition, which it was not lawful for him to eat, nor for them that were with him,
but for the priests only? [5] Or have ye not read in the law, that
on the sabbath days the priests in the temple break the sabbath, and are without blame?"
This statement had a much more profound and prophetic meaning when it was made by Jesus. He was actually telling the Jews that His Disciples were exempt from the Law, because they were the Priests of the New Covenant who would replace the Levitical Priesthood. So, they were “without blame”.
If Jesus had broken any Law, it would have been a sin. He never sinned. Do you really think He did?
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