Veneration of Mary and Luke 11:27-28

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The VENERATION by Catholics towards Mary is counted as a sin of ’ IDOLATROUS WORSHIP / SINFUL WORSHIP ’

Proof: -

Word Origin & History

veneration

early 15c., from M.Fr. veneration , from L. venerationem (nom. veneratio ) “reverence,” from venerari “to worship, revere,” from venus (gen. veneris ) “beauty, love, desire” (see Venus). (Source: dictionary.reference.com/browse/veneration)
There are different forms of worship. Veneration is worship only insofar as it worships God through Mary, through our recognition of who Mary is in relation to God. It is the difference between “dulia” and “latria”, two different levels of worship. Dulia worships God through the relationship someone or something has with God. Latria is worship and adoration of God directly.

Veneration of Saints, of which Mary is preeminent, flows from the doctrines of the communion of saints and the Body of Christ. Scripture commands that we pray for other members of the Body of Christ and nowhere in scripture does it state that the dead are no longer members of Christs body, that they cannot hear our prayers, or that they cannot intercede on our behalf such as we who are alive do every day when we pray for each other. Only Jesus Christ can stand before God and gain for us our salvation. But we are taught explicity that the grace which we gain from Christ can be shared among members of the Body of Christ.

*No foul language should come out of your mouths, but only such as is good for needed edification, that it may impart grace to those who hear. (Ephesians 4:29)

Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I am filling up what is lacking in the afflictions of Christ on behalf of his body, which is the church, (Colossians 1:24)*

Mary, as the preeminent saint and the Mother of of the second person of the trinity, is the channel through which all graces obtained on our behalf by her son flow.

***Jesus did not “use” Mary to come into the world. She really is his Mother. And she remains his Mother. As she gave birth to the “head” of the body of Christ, so she gives birth to the members of the body of Christ. She is the Mother of the whole Christ. Whenever and wherever he [Christ] is brought forth into the world, Mary is there. ***

If Catholics worship Mary then Protestants who have abandoned her have abandoned Christ. The lack of crosses in most Evangelical Churches testify to this, I think.

-Tim-
 
The VENERATION by Catholics towards Mary is counted as a sin of ’ IDOLATROUS WORSHIP / SINFUL WORSHIP ’

Proof: -

Word Origin & History

veneration

early 15c., from M.Fr. veneration , from L. venerationem (nom. veneratio ) “reverence,” from venerari “to worship, revere,” from venus (gen. veneris ) “beauty, love, desire” (see Venus). (Source: dictionary.reference.com/browse/veneration)

http://i43.servimg.com/u/f43/12/43/81/32/velvet10.gif
If I were to say you were gay, would I be accusing you of being homosexual? Yes. If I said the same thing 100 years ago? No, I would be calling you happy. So what is the difference? The meaning of the word has changed. Same with the word worship. Originally it could mean worship that we think of today that is only given to God (latria), but could also mean honor (dulia). This is why you will see older writing refer to a judge, king, or other office holder as Your Worship. It was giving them honor. This is the veneration or honor that we give to saints, especially Mary who we give our highest honor we can bestow on another creature (hyper-dulia). It is not worship (latria) which is reserved to God alone.

Be careful thinking you have figured out the silver bullet that “proves” your mistaken beliefs about the Church Christ built, the Catholic Church.
 
That passage of Scripture like others have already stated Christ is showing Her blessedness (as did Elizabeth) “Blessed is she who believed” is in Her hearing the Word of God and believing in His Words.
 
=composer;7919151]The VENERATION by Catholics towards Mary is counted as a sin of ’ IDOLATROUS WORSHIP / SINFUL WORSHIP ’
Word Origin & History
veneration
early 15c., from M.Fr. veneration , from L. venerationem (nom. veneratio ) “reverence,” from venerari “to worship, revere,” from venus (gen. veneris ) “beauty, love, desire” (see Venus). (Source: dictionary.reference.com/browse/veneration)
OK:shrug:

And that is found where im your bible:)

God Bless you my friend,
Pat
 
The translation of “On the contrary” is a faulty one.

The accurate translation was “Yes, and additionally”.
Well, not really. “On the contrary” is faulty but so is “yes and additionally.” The Greek is “rather.”
IOW, Jesus not only acknowledged that His Mother was blessed. . .but that all those who heard the word of God and obeyed would be blessed as well.
And that is precisely right. He is directing the listener’s attention to the purpose of His Incarnation - the blessing of all nations (see the promise to Abraham, by the way). His Mother is indeed blessed - but not primarily because she gave birth and suckled Him, but because she listened and obeyed - and therefore, became the Mother of God.

“Mother of God” is a one-off. I cannot aspire to that role. I can still be blessed, because I can still be “the one who hears the Word of God” (Jesus) “and obeys” Him. Hence, “rather.”
 
The VENERATION by Catholics towards Mary is counted as a sin of ’ IDOLATROUS WORSHIP / SINFUL WORSHIP ’

Proof: -

Word Origin & History

veneration

early 15c., from M.Fr. veneration , from L. venerationem (nom. veneratio ) “reverence,” from venerari “to worship, revere,” from venus (gen. veneris ) “beauty, love, desire” (see Venus). (Source: dictionary.reference.com/browse/veneration)

http://i43.servimg.com/u/f43/12/43/81/32/velvet10.gif
Composer, you are right to consider the study of words and their meanings but we must be very careful when doing it… However, please consider the following:

Some years ago I heard a person stating that Mary, Jesus’ mother, was only engaged when at the Annunciation she was told she was to be the mother of God. Just imagine the profound effect that must have had on her, a teenager most likely, who had already consecrated herself to a life of virginity.

The point I want to make here is that we have to be careful of how we choose and interpret the meaning of specific words and how they are used today as opposed opposed to the meaning of the Hebrew or Aramaic word 2000 years ago.

The incident I am speaking about is that the person was interpreting the word “betrothed,” in an English translation of the Bible as “engaged.” The normal meaning of betrothal as used today meaning that a marriage will then follow after an appropriate length of time. The person was obviously suggesting that Mary was not married at the time Jesus was conceived. I just couldn’t imagine that God in His infinite wisdom would ever permit a scandalous thing like that to ever happen especially since Mary would be be subject to being stoned to death under Judaic law at the time, and especially since Mary was a devout orthodox Jew.

This led me to contact sources whose judgments I trusted to find out what was the ancient Judaic law, the normative societal practices, and an understanding of the semantics of just what betrothal meant and was 2000 years ago. My search results on the internet, using “ancient Judaism betrothal” as search criteria, included the Glossary of Jewish Terminology.” The glossary explains very clearly and definitively that 2000 years ago betrothal was more than just being engaged as we understand and practice today in that the couple were in fact, actually legally (juridically) married under the Levirate law at the time and only death or divorce could break the relationship. ( The glossary is on the internet: the URL is: jewfaq.org/glossary.htm#3)
Code:
The next two paragraphs contain information from the glossary, reduced by me to bare essentials (with emphases mine.)

“Betrothal:  The first part of  a two-part process of Jewish marriage which creates the legal relationship without the legal obligations.  In Hebrew (or is it Aramaic ?) it is called kiddushin, which means literally, sanctification.  It is the first part of a two-step process of the Jewish  marriage process which creates the legal relationship without the mutual obligations.  Kiddushin was and is far more binding than an engagement  as we understand and use the term betrothal in modern English today.  

“Once kiddushin is complete, the woman is legally the wife of the man.  The relationship created by kiddushin can only be dissolved by death or divorce.  However, the spouses did not ordinarily live together immediately afterward and the bride would normally remain in her parents home for as much as a year after the kiddushin or until her husband can prepare a home for them to live in.. The mutual obligations created by this legal marital relationship did not take effect until the nisuin (from a word meaning “elevation) completed the process of marriage.  Before the nisuin, the husband prepared a home for his new family.  As I understand it, once the home was prepared, the husband brought his wife into his home, there was a celebration similar to a wedding reception of today in a different venue than where the ceremony similar to the kiddushin took place and they  began their married life together.  

The Bible states unequivocally that Mary was already “betrothed “ to Joseph at the time of the Annunciation and Joseph had made up his mind to divorce her informally.  Therefore, the only conclusion possible is that “kiddushin” had already occurred and under Judaic law at the time they were in fact legally married.
The problems translators face in translating from the original language is that there are times that they just cannot find an exact word match in English and are forced to used a word that does not convey the full and exact meaning of the original word. Remember that the books of the Bible were written, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, by men in their own words and language and usage as well as personal experience I am in no way denying the Holy Spirit is the principal author of the Bible but the fact is that men physically wrote the books means that they are co-authors.
 
Composer, you are right to consider the study of words and their meanings but we must be very careful when doing it… However, please consider the following:

Some years ago I heard a person stating that Mary, Jesus’ mother, was only engaged when at the Annunciation she was told she was to be the mother of God. Just imagine the profound effect that must have had on her, a teenager most likely, who had already consecrated herself to a life of virginity.

The point I want to make here is that we have to be careful of how we choose and interpret the meaning of specific words and how they are used today as opposed opposed to the meaning of the Hebrew or Aramaic word 2000 years ago.

The incident I am speaking about is that the person was interpreting the word “betrothed,” in an English translation of the Bible as “engaged.” The normal meaning of betrothal as used today meaning that a marriage will then follow after an appropriate length of time. The person was obviously suggesting that Mary was not married at the time Jesus was conceived. I just couldn’t imagine that God in His infinite wisdom would ever permit a scandalous thing like that to ever happen especially since Mary would be be subject to being stoned to death under Judaic law at the time, and especially since Mary was a devout orthodox Jew.

This led me to contact sources whose judgments I trusted to find out what was the ancient Judaic law, the normative societal practices,** and an understanding of the semantics of just what betrothal meant and was 2000 years ago**. My search results on the internet, using “ancient Judaism betrothal” as search criteria, included the Glossary of Jewish Terminology.” The glossary explains very clearly and definitively that 2000 years ago betrothal was more than just being engaged as we understand and practice today in that the couple were in fact, actually legally (juridically) married under the Levirate law at the time and only death or divorce could break the relationship. ( The glossary is on the internet: the URL is: jewfaq.org/glossary.htm#3)
Code:
The next two paragraphs contain information from the glossary, reduced by me to bare essentials (with emphases mine.)

**“Betrothal**:  The first part of  a two-part process of Jewish marriage which creates the legal relationship without the legal obligations.  In Hebrew (or is it Aramaic ?) it is called **kiddushin**, which means literally, sanctification.  It is the first part of a two-step process of the Jewish  marriage process which creates the legal relationship without the mutual obligations.  Kiddushin was and is far more binding than an engagement  as we understand and use the term betrothal in modern English today.  

**“Once kiddushin is complete, the woman is legally the wife of the man.  The relationship created by kiddushin can only be dissolved by death or divorce.**  However, the spouses did not ordinarily live together immediately afterward and the bride would normally remain in her parents home for as much as a year after the kiddushin or until her husband can prepare a home for them to live in.. The mutual obligations created by this legal marital relationship did not take effect until the **nisuin** (from a word meaning “elevation) completed the process of marriage.  Before the nisuin, the husband prepared a home for his new family.  As I understand it, once the home was prepared, the husband brought his wife into his home, there was a celebration similar to a wedding reception of today in a different venue than where the ceremony similar to the kiddushin took place and they  began their married life together.  

The Bible states unequivocally that Mary was already “betrothed “ to Joseph at the time of the Annunciation and Joseph had made up his mind to **divorce** her informally.  Therefore, the only conclusion possible is that “kiddushin” had already occurred and under Judaic law at the time they were in fact legally married.
The problems translators face in translating from the original language is that there are times that they just cannot find an exact word match in English and are forced to use a word that does not convey the full and exact meaning of the original word. Remember that the books of the Bible were written, under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, by men in their own words and language and usage as well as from personal experience I am in no way denying the Holy Spirit is the principal author of the Bible but the fact is that men physically wrote the books means that they are co-authors.
 
I can answer this question regarding (Luke 11:27-28). If a verse is taken in isolation (as most protestants try to do) then it might look as if Our Lord was somehow “downplaying” the Virgin Mary’s significance and role in salvation history. However, scripture must support scripture because it is the word of God, and God is NOT a liar NOR a deceiver.

In (Luke 11:27-28) it says, "As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, "Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you."He replied, “Blessed rather are those who HEAR THE WORD OF GOD AND OBEY IT.” Pay close attention to the last part of verse 28.

So how do we reconcile (Luke 11:27-28) with the Catholic teaching about the Blessed Mother? (Luke 1:38) says, “And Mary said: Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it done to me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.”

What did the Blessed Mother do in Luke 1:38? She HEARD THE WORD OF GOD AND OBEYED IT.

And what is the mother of Our Lord called for hearing and obeying the word of God? Scripture says, "And it came to pass, as Elizabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit, And she cried out with a loud voice, and said: BLESSED art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.(Luke 1:41-42). Notice how scripture says that Elizabeth was “filled with the Holy Spirit” while she exclaimed that Mary was BLESSED.

Then in (Luke 1:45) Elizabeth exclaims, “And BLESSED art thou that hast believed, because those things shall be accomplished that were spoken to thee by the Lord.”

Then a third time scripture clearly sates that Mary is BLESSED. (Luke 1:48).

So if you now look back on Luke 11:27-28, when Jesus says, "“Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it.” He is in fact referring to His mother Mary, and the fact that she is blessed (because Mary HEARD THE WORD OF GOD AND OBEYED IT).
 
I can answer this question regarding (Luke 11:27-28). If a verse is taken in isolation (as most protestants try to do) then to some it might appear as if this passage is “downplaying” the Virgin Mary’s significance and role in salvation history. However, scripture must support scripture because it is the word of God, and God is NOT a liar NOR a deceiver.

In (Luke 11:27-28) it says, "As Jesus was saying these things, a woman in the crowd called out, "Blessed is the mother who gave you birth and nursed you."He replied, “Blessed rather are those who HEAR THE WORD OF GOD AND OBEY IT.” Pay close attention to the last part of verse 28.

So how do we reconcile (Luke 11:27-28) with the Catholic teaching about the Blessed Mother? (Luke 1:38) says, “And Mary said: Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it done to me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her.”

What did the Blessed Mother do in Luke 1:38? She HEARD THE WORD OF GOD AND OBEYED IT.

And what is the mother of Our Lord called for hearing and obeying the word of God? Scripture says, "And it came to pass, as Elizabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit, And she cried out with a loud voice, and said: BLESSED art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.(Luke 1:41-42). Notice how scripture says that Elizabeth was “filled with the Holy Spirit” while she exclaimed that Mary was BLESSED.

Then in (Luke 1:45) Elizabeth exclaims, “And BLESSED art thou that hast believed, because those things shall be accomplished that were spoken to thee by the Lord.”

Then a third time scripture clearly sates that Mary is BLESSED. (Luke 1:48).

So if you now look back on Luke 11:27-28, when Jesus says, "“Blessed rather are those who hear the word of God and obey it.” He is in fact referring to His mother Mary, and the fact that she is blessed (because Mary HEARD THE WORD OF GOD AND OBEYED IT).
 
I wanted to clarify something I said in my original post above regarding (Luke 11:27-28). I didn’t mean to imply that the verses (even if taken in isolation) could mistakenly be misread, suggest, or even imply that Our Lord was somehow “diminishing” the importance of Mary’s role in salvation history (for even if taken in isolation one can see that is not the message of Our Lord in that passage); rather that heretics purposely twist these verses out of context to suit their own personal exegesis.
 
A solid suggestion is to stop protesting the Church built by Christ. Otherwise, you will continue to experience the troubles of sola scriptura and right of private interpretation. How can one truly know our Lord, if one misunderstands either oral or written Tradition? Ignorance of the Bible is ignorance of Christ. Ever hear a televangelist or Billy Graham claim infallibility? They cannot do so without lying.

The Catholic Church is the only entity guaranteed to teach the truth about Christ, with sacred oral and written Tradition. Only the Catholic Church can claim to teach without error in faith and morals.
Walls must be bumped into for their rigidity to be appreciated.
 
There is many scriptures, via Typlogy, that Mary - the Immaculate Ark of the New Covenant, Ever Virgin and Mother of God… This is my particular method to show about Mary is the New Ark of the covenant!

Read Exodus 25:11-21 the ark of the Old Covenant was made of the purest gold for God’s Word. Mary is the ark of the New Covenant and is the purest vessel for the Word of God made flesh

Exodus 40:34 Then a cloud covered the tent of the congregation, and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle. 35 And Moses was not able to enter into the tent of the congregation, because the cloud abode thereon, and the glory of the LORD filled the tabernacle. Luke 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God. This is a form of Typology, in regards to the Holy Spirit dwelling!

Read Deuteronomy 10:3-5 Hebrew 9:4 and Luke 1:35 The womb of the Virgin contained Jesus: the living Word of God enfleshed, the living bread from heaven, “the Branch” (Messianic title) who would die but come back to life [Luke 1:35].

1 Chron. 13:9 And when they came unto the threshingfloor of Chidon, Uzza put forth his hand to hold the ark; for the oxen stumbled. 10 And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzza, and he smote him, because he put his hand to the ark: and there he died before God. this is an account of Uzzah and the Ark. For God to dwell within Mary the Ark, Mary had to be conceived without sin. For Protestants to argue otherwise would be to say that God would let the finger of Satan touch His Son made flesh. This is incomprehensible.

1 Chron. 15 and 1 Chron 16 these verses show the awesome reverence the Jews had for the Ark - veneration, vestments, songs, harps, lyres, cymbals, trumpets.

2 Sam. 6:7 And the anger of the LORD was kindled against Uzzah; and God smote him there for [his] error; and there he died by the ark of God. the Ark is so holy and pure that when Uzzah touched it, the Lord slew him. This shows us that the Ark is undefiled. Mary the Ark of the New Covenant is even more immaculate and undefiled, spared by God from original sin so that she could bear His eternal Word in her womb.

2 Sam. 6:2 And David arose, and went with all the people that [were] with him from Baale of Judah, to bring up from thence the ark of God, whose name is called by the name of the LORD of hosts that dwelleth [between] the cherubims. Luke 1:39 And Mary arose in those days, and went into the hill country with haste, into a city of Juda;
Luke’s conspicuous comparison’s between Mary and the Ark described by Samuel underscores the reality of Mary as the undefiled and immaculate Ark of the New Covenant. In these verses, Mary (the Ark) arose and went / David arose and went to the Ark. There is a clear parallel between the Ark of the Old and the Ark of the New Covenant.

2 Sam. 6:9 And David was afraid of the LORD that day, and said, How shall the ark of the LORD come to me? Luke 1:43 And whence [is] this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? How can the Mother / Ark of the Lord come to me? It is a holy privilege. Our Mother wants to come to us and lead us to Jesus. 2 Sam. 6:11 And the ark of the LORD continued in the house of Obededom the Gittite three months: and the LORD blessed Obededom, and all his household. Luke 1:56 And Mary abode with her about three months, and returned to her own house. Mary / the Ark remained in the house for about three months 2 Sam 6:14 And David danced before the LORD with all [his] might; and David [was] girded with a linen ephod. Luke 1:44 For, lo, as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in mine ears, the babe leaped in my womb for joy. Continuation! 2 Sam 6:15 So David and all the house of Israel brought up the ark of the LORD with shouting, and with the sound of the trumpet. Luke 1:42 And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed [art] thou among women, and blessed [is] the fruit of thy womb.

2 Sam 6:12 And it was told king David, saying, The LORD hath blessed the house of Obededom, and all that [pertaineth] unto him, because of the ark of God. So David went and brought up the ark of God from the house of Obededom into the city of David with gladness. 1 Kings 8:9 There was] nothing in the ark save the two tables of stone, which Moses put there at Horeb, when the LORD made [a covenant] with the children of Israel, when they came out of the land of Egypt.10 And it came to pass, when the priests were come out of the holy [place], that the cloud filled the house of the LORD, 11 So that the priests could not stand to minister because of the cloud: for the glory of the LORD had filled the house of the LORD. Is correlated with Luke 1:56 And Mary abode with her about three months, and returned to her own house. Luke 2:21 And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called JESUS, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb.22 And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present [him] to the Lord;

Numbers 17:8 And it came to pass, that on the morrow Moses went into the tabernacle of witness; and, behold, the rod of Aaron for the house of Levi was budded, and brought forth buds, and bloomed blossoms, and yielded almonds.

Hebrews 4:14 Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast [our] profession. Mary is our Mother and
 
I don’t understand why you non-catholic are trying to find ways to make us think we are doing something we are not…With your definition of veneration…or any other little insignivicant detail…you can try and find anyway you want to say that we are worshiping her…but that doesn’t change the fact that we arn’t…no matter what definition you come up with or no matter what bible versus you find…it will not change that fact that we do not worship mary…so rant and rave about idolitry all you want…because you are literarly wasting your time…we are all past the fact that catholics do not worship mary…soo why continue to find insignificant little details to try and convinces us that we do? Because even if you can find some little tiny itty bitty detail saying we do…it won’t change the fact that any catholic does not see it that way…soo why bother looking?
 
Well, not really. “On the contrary” is faulty but so is “yes and additionally.” The Greek is “rather.”
The Greek is tricky: had a simple adversative been wanted, αντι would have sufficed, as in James 4:15.

The term in question in Luke 11:28 is μενουνγε, a tripartite compound. By itself, μεν is generally used for emphatic agreement. In conjunction (see section B.II.2 of same) with the intensive/resultative but occasionally contrastive ουν , it can be either affirmative or adversative. Meanwhile, γε is primarily intensive. While “on the contrary” expresses a disagreement not justified by the passage in question or the usage of the terms in general, “rather” expresses the adversative function alone, and neglects the rest. I would go, therefore, with Tantum ergo’s rendering for naturalness, or for “Yes but particularly” for a more complete sense of all of what is expressed through that term.

In any case, it does not at all say in Greek that Mary is not blessed, and this is the same Gospel which uses κεχαριτωμενη for her (1:28).
 
I stumbled upon Luke 11:27-28 some time ago and to me it seems to challenge the veneration of Mary. I’ve done some research and haven’t come up with any solid answers thus far. Any thoughts?
Sorry, I posted my response about the Greek before thinking to check your church affiliation.

One thing that might be useful to point out is that the veneration of Mary is not (contrary to some of the propaganda that goes around Protestant circles) a late addition. We have very clear evidence of it in the second century, in the Protoevangelium of James, one of our most important historical sources for Mary’s life but also for the esteem in which she was held. It then continues through the early centuries of the Church.

Remember that, at this time, not only were outstanding literary scholars like Origen and Jerome studying the Scriptures in minute detail, most of the Church were studying the NT untranslated in a language which they themselves used on a daily basis. Even the church in Rome was originally Greek-speaking. They all understood these Scriptures far better than we do now, and this was the period in which Mary was celebrated as Theotokos, ‘God-bearer’, i.e. Mother of God. That veneration is in no way contrary to Scripture; had it been so, they would never have accepted it.

Something which we Protestants need to learn is how to get past all of the sixteenth and seventeenth century propaganda, so as to recover the baby which the “Reformers” threw out with the bathwater.
 
Something which we Protestants need to learn is how to get past all of the sixteenth and seventeenth century propaganda, so as to recover the baby which the “Reformers” threw out with the bathwater.
Or just come back to the Catholic Church…much easier than trying to fix the unfixable. 😉
 
Something which we Protestants need to learn is how to get past all of the sixteenth and seventeenth century propaganda, so as to recover the baby which the “Reformers” threw out with the bathwater.
That is easy. There is a Church that thrives on preserving the ancient faith, the faith as it is taught by the Apostles and Church Fathers of the First Millennium 😉
 
That is easy. There is a Church that thrives on preserving the ancient faith, the faith as it is taught by the Apostles and Church Fathers of the First Millennium 😉
There are a great many things which I appreciate about Orthodox theology, hence the fact that I have spent more than a year so far working my way through the Philokalia, but there are far too many things which I appreciate about Anglicanism to consider leaving. Still, if we can have Anglo-Catholics, maybe Anglo-Orthodox would be a good idea.
 
Sorry, I posted my response about the Greek before thinking to check your church affiliation.

Something which we Protestants need to learn is how to get past all of the sixteenth and seventeenth century propaganda, so as to recover the baby which the “Reformers” threw out with the bathwater.
You seem to be well versed in history…you can start writing papers about such things…why not start…👍
 
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