Video on Mormonism - is this inaccurate?

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I’ve been going about this all wrong. I no longer think whether or not God the Father had sexual relations with Mary is the issue. The real issue is whether or not such a belief is part of LDS doctrine and what constitutes LDS doctrine.

What is official LDS doctrine? Can something be considered doctrine if any Latter-Day Saint anywhere believes it? No. Is something official doctrine just because a General Authority said it or believed it.? No. Typically, critics insist that the Latter-day Saints must defend everything that Joseph Smith or Brigham Young or any other General Authority ever said as doctrine. This simply is not so.

There is a process by which LDS determine what binding doctrine is. It must be presented to the membership in general conference to receive a sustaining vote. It is that sustaining vote, by the individual members, that makes something officially binding upon members as the doctrine of the Church.

For example, when Wilford Woodruff, third President of the church, committed the Latter-day Saints to cease the practice of plural marriage; his official declaration was submitted to the Sixtieth Semiannual General Conference of the church on October 6, 1890. It was accepted by unanimous vote as authoritative and binding. It was that vote which made the document, now recorded in D&C as Official Declaration 1, official. It should be noted that a unanimous vote is not necessary. Those who dissent are asked to explain why they feel the way they do and consideration is given as to whether or not there is merit to their objection.

As B.H. Roberts said, “It is not sufficient to quote sayings purported to come from Joseph Smith or Brigham Young upon matters of doctrine. Our own people also need instruction and correction in respect of this. It is common to hear some of our older brethren say, “But I heard Brother Joseph myself say so,” or “Brother Brigham preached it; I heard him.” But that is not the question. The question is has God said it? Was the prophet speaking officially? . . .
As to the printed discourses of even leading brethren, the same principle holds. They do not constitute the court of ultimate appeal on doctrine. They may be very useful in the way of elucidation and are very generally good and sound in doctrine, but they are not the ultimate sources of the doctrines of the Church, and are not binding upon the Church. The rule in that respect is–What God has spoken, and what has been accepted by the Church as the word of God, by that, and that only, are we bound in doctrine.”

Of course, it doesn’t help that some overly enthusiastic LDS don’t make the distinction between the personal opinions/beliefs/speculations of past and current leaders and writers and what has been canonized as official, binding doctrine.

Some might ask, why doesn’t church leadership just come out and say point blank that God the Father didn’t have sex with Mary? First, since it isn’t official church doctrine, why should they bother? Second, even if they did, who out there actually thinks that critics of the LDS church will respond to such a renunciation by saying, “Oh! That clears up everything! Sorry we were mistaken about you all these years!” I think the reaction would be more like, "But said and the cycle begins all over again! Still, some out there might be more charitable. For that, I declare you a beautiful gem!

In regards to what LDS doctrine is: What a person, whether they be LDS (General Authority or otherwise) or non-LDS, believes about the conception of Jesus is irrelevant. What a person thinks about the process by which official doctrine is established is irrelevant. The LDS church has the right to define what constitutes its official doctrine and how official doctrine is determined.

Similarly, the Catholic church has the right to determine what is its official doctrine and how doctrine is determined. I don’t really know much about that and would love to have one my Catholic friends out there enlighten me as to the process.

There are a lot of things in the Catholic church with which I disagree. Still, when I encounter someone saying something about the Catholic church and what it believes, I want to know what the Catechism has to say about it. I want to know what Catholics themselves have to say about it. What is the official position? Just because a Catholic (deacon, priest, bishop, cardinal, etc) said it, I don’t assume it’s official. Please understand, I’m not picking on the Catholic church. This is a Catholic forum so it makes sense to use it for comparison when possible. I promise I love you guys!!
 
dknight, that would be a workable approach, if it well, worked.

Even if something is not doctrine, and has not been sustained by the members, active mormons do not consider it an option to disobey their prophet.

When previous prophets taught that Mary and God had sex, the mormons at the time trusted and believed that they were receiving correct instruction.
 
C’mon Zerinus, I never said a prophet cannot make a mistake in his entire life. What I did say is that a true prophet cannot teach error in matters of faith. If your LDS prophets, be they current or old, teach error in matters of the faith, then they are false prophets, because one who teaches error is leading the flock astray. No one can look back in history and make excuses for what Joseph Smith or Brigham Young or Joseph F. Smith taught if that doesn’t happen to agree with what the current prophet teaches. I don’t care what any of them think about politics or medicine or science, but I do care what they have to teach about religion. So they can make all the mistakes they want in those other areas. But they are most certainly not allowed to teach error in matters of faith. If they do, how are the members supposed to tell the difference between what is correct and what is not?

It’s very interesting to see how modern LDS are so quick to claim the apostacy of the early church when it allegedly started teaching error. Yet when the same thing happens in Mormonism from time to time, it is automatically dismissed as “individual speculation,” having no bearing on the authenticity of the prophet. I wish Mormons would apply the same standards to their own prophets as they do to the early Christian church leaders. I guess you can’t because if you made the same allowances for error in the early church you as you allow for people like Joseph Smith and Brigham Young, you wouldn’t be able to claim apostacy in the first place.
Can you define for us exactly what “ex cathedra” means in Catholic theology; and how it relates to the doctrine of Papal infallibility?

zerinus
 
What is official LDS doctrine?
It’s actually pretty hard to tell sometimes because it seems to change often and their isn’t really one written source you can find it.
Typically, critics insist that the Latter-day Saints must defend everything that Joseph Smith or Brigham Young or any other General Authority ever said as doctrine. This simply is not so.
If it is not so, then calling these men prophets is misleading at the very least. If they can get some pretty important things wrong, we can no longer call them true prophets.
There is a process by which LDS determine what binding doctrine is. It must be presented to the membership in general conference to receive a sustaining vote. It is that sustaining vote, by the individual members, that makes something officially binding upon members as the doctrine of the Church.
Since when is a democratic vote required for the prophet’s message to be accepted? Really, does that make any sense to you? If that’s the case, then what you call a prophet in the modern days is very different from what the ancients considered their prophets to be. They spoke for God whether the people accepted it or not. They spoke truth whether people accepted it or not. It’s not the acceptance of something that makes it truth.
As B.H. Roberts said, “It is not sufficient to quote sayings purported to come from Joseph Smith or Brigham Young upon matters of doctrine. Our own people also need instruction and correction in respect of this. It is common to hear some of our older brethren say, “But I heard Brother Joseph myself say so,” or “Brother Brigham preached it; I heard him.” But that is not the question. The question is has God said it? Was the prophet speaking officially? . . .
I will have to respectfully disagree with Mr. Roberts. First of all, if the prophet is preaching to the church, then he is speaking officially. There is no such thing as a prophet preaching “unofficially.” When the leader of a church stands up in front of a congregation of its members and preaches from the pulpit, they are *officially *teaching.
Some might ask, why doesn’t church leadership just come out and say point blank that God the Father didn’t have sex with Mary?
They know they can’t because it would refute the teachings of earlier prophets, and thus credibility would be damaged. That’s why they won’t touch it with a ten-foot pole.
Second, even if they did, who out there actually thinks that critics of the LDS church will respond to such a renunciation by saying, “Oh! That clears up everything! Sorry we were mistaken about you all these years!” I think the reaction would be more like, "But said and the cycle begins all over again! Still, some out there might be more charitable.
You’re right. If they did renunciate previous erronious teachings they would be hammered for it. To renunciate old teaching would take away the credibility of prophets like Joseph and Brigham, and that would bring the church down in a heap. On the other hand, they could come out in support of the earlier prophets’ teachings. But they can’t do that either because some of those teachings were so ludicrous that they would be hammered for it as well. So they chose the third option–ignore it or deny it, as President Hinkley has done on a few occasions. They are between a rock and a hard place.
In regards to what LDS doctrine is: What a person, whether they be LDS (General Authority or otherwise) or non-LDS, believes about the conception of Jesus is irrelevant. What a person thinks about the process by which official doctrine is established is irrelevant. The LDS church has the right to define what constitutes its official doctrine and how official doctrine is determined.
O.k., fine. But then the missionaries need to be clear to prospective converts that the beliefs of the Mormon church are determined by a general vote of the membership, not by the prophetic ministry of its leaders. Claiming true modern-day prophets at the helm is a major selling point for the Mormon Church. Now I have no idea why you need prophets in the first place if they are not the authoritative voice of God on earth. Their words are not authoritative until the membership agrees with whatever they said. What kind of system for determining truth is that?
 
when Joseph smith “revealed” scriptures it wasn’t put to a vote. When the lectures on faith were removed form the D&C it wasn’t put to a vote and when the section denouncing polygamy was removed from the D&C that wasn’t put to a vote either. The Temple ceremony is not in the “standard works” and the changes made to it have not been put to a vote. yet it is considered absolutely essential to exaltation. Mormon PROPHETS (as opposed to other GA’s) as claimed by the LDS church to be necessary and to speak as if from Gods own mouth. Maybe not every word but certainly when addressing the church in general conference. That in mind…I think LDs do have to accept/defend/etc. the proclamations/teachings etc. of joseph smith and brigham young at the very least when given to the LDs church as a whole in general conference. (that would include the king follet sermon and the JoD) add in what is contained in first presidency approved lesson manuals and the fact that to be worthy of a temple recommend all LDS have to sustain all apostles and the first presidency as prophets, seers and revelators and I think you get a situation where either they are false prophets or what they teach must be true doctrine. I don’t buy the “we’ll vote on the veracity of what they teach, discarding what is false”. what kind of prophets are those? remember these early LDS prophets claimed angelic visitations and direct face to face communication with God himself. that makes it a bit difficult to accept that they were just speculating.
 
*“I will concede that there is a passing reference in a hymn (don’t have a hymnal with me) that says reason tells us we have a mother in heaven.
*
Here ya go, found it when I was researching.
O my Father, thou that dwellest
In the high and glorious place,
When shall I regain thy presence
And again behold thy face?
In they holy habitation,
Did my spirit once reside?
In my first primeval childhood
Was I nurtured near thy side?
For a wise and glorious purpose
Thou hast placed me here on earth
And with-held the recollection
Of my former friends and birth;
Yet oft-times a secret something
Whispered, “You’re a stranger here,”
And I felt that I had wandered
From a more exalted sphere.
I had learned to call thee Father,
Thru thy Spirit it from on high,
But, until the key of knowledge
Was restored I knew not why.
In the heav’ns are parents single?
No, the thought makes reason stare!
**Truth is reason; truth eternal
Tells me I’ve a mother there.
**
When I leave this frail existence,
When I lay this mortal by,
Father, Mother, may I meet you
In your royal courts on high?
Then, at length, when I’ve completed
All you sent me forth to do,
With you [sic] mutual approbation
Let me come and dwell with you.
 
Yes, majick275 makes a good point. There is some information presented in the film that is technically accurate but the way it is portrayed is meant to distort the meaning. For example, as LDS, we accept the teaching that there are many Gods. However, the way this belief is presented in “The God Makers” is misleading. I think Robert Starling said it best:

"The Mormon “gods” were said to have “worked their way up” to become gods. This is alien to LDS theology. While we believe that we are the “offspring of God,” (Heb. 12:9, Acts 17:29, Ps.82:6) and “joint heirs with Christ,” (Rom.8:17, 1 Jn.3:2, Rev. 3:21) we can no more “work ourselves up” to godhood than a piece of coal can “work itself up” to become a diamond or a caterpillar can “work itself up” to be a butterfly. In each case the potential is there, but it is God who must work the miracle. He is the only “Godmaker”

As for blatant lies, no LDS I have ever met believes that God the Father had a physical, sexual union with Mary. That is simply untrue and foreign to our doctrine. We believe Jesus is literally the Son of God the Father in the flesh. The mechanism by which this was accomplished is a mystery but no one has ever suggested it was through a physical union. Orson Pratt, an LDS apostle, came close to suggesting this as a possibility (he didn’t come right out and say it, only hinted at it) and was immediately corrected by the First Presidency who declared such a notion as false doctrine.

To suggest anything to the contrary is like saying Catholics are cannibals because they believe in transubstantiation. A note to my Catholic friends: I intend no offense and would never suggest such a thing because I know it is a gross misrepresentation of what Catholics believe about the Eucharist. I am only using this distortion as an example of how a person can misrepresent the beliefs of another.

If anyone is curious, I would suggest you check out the link I provided in my first post. If anyone is curious about any particular points of issue with “The God Makers”, I will be glad to try to address them to the best of my ability.
dknight, if we are “joint heirs with Christ”, then we become God? As Catholics we believe in the Beatific Vision, but we do not believe we can become God.

the plurality of Gods theory promulgated by Joseph Smith, Sr. is related to the Adam-God doctrine of Brigham Young and eternal progression.

this whole thing is also related to the Mormon belief that God resides on the planet Kolob, and that He had a Father, in an eternal cycle. Mormonism is a polytheistic movement, not a Christian Monotheistic Faith.

If You Could Hie to Kolob by William Wines

If you could hie to Kolob in the twinkling of an eye,
And then continue onward with that same speed to fly,
Do you think that you could ever, through all eternity,
Find out the generation where Gods began to be?

Or see the grand beginning, where space did not extend?
Or view the last creation, where Gods and matter end?
Methinks the Spirit whispers, “No man has found ‘pure space,’
Nor seen the outside curtains, where nothing has a place.”

The works of God continue, and worlds and lives abound;
Improvement and progression have one eternal round.
There is no end to matter; there is no end to space;
There is no end to spirit; there is no end to race.

There is no end to virtue; there is no end to might;
There is no end to wisdom; there is no end to light.
There is no end to union; there is no end to youth;
There is no end to priesthood; there is no end to truth.

There is no end to glory; there is no end to love;
There is no end to being; there is no death above.
There is no end to glory; there is no end to love;
There is no end to being; there is no death above.
 
Pjs2ejs,

I think Joseph Fielding Smith put it best when he said:

"It makes no difference what is written or what anyone has said, if what has been said is in conflict with what the Lord has revealed, we can set it aside. My words, and the teachings of any other member of the Church, high or low, if they do not square with the revelations, we need not accept them. Let us have this matter clear. We have accepted the four standard works as the measuring yardsticks, or balances, by which we measure every man’s doctrine. You cannot accept the books written by the authorities of the Church as standards in doctrine, only in so far as they accord with the revealed word in the standard works.
Every man who writes is responsible, not the Church, for what he writes. if Joseph Fielding Smith writes something which is out of harmony with the revelations, then every member of the Church is duty bound to reject it. If he writes that which is in perfect harmony with the revealed word of the Lord, then it should be accepted (Doctrines of Salvation, Vol.3, pp.203-04).

I see this as being very much the same as the idea of papal infallibility. My understanding of papal infallibility is that the Pope is infallible when declaring dogmatic teaching on faith and morals and that it does not mean the Pope is incapable of error or that every word that proceeds from his mouth is as if it were coming from God on a direct conduit. Help me out my Catholic friends. Am I right?
The pope is infallible in the sense of teachings and morals of the Catholic Church. Not in math, science, etc. kind of stuff. Any personal sins made by the pope himself prove that he is just a man, but he is not capable of teaching contradictory teachings of the Catholic Church.

and I don’t understand, how could Joseph Smith have said that and the mormons still follow his teachings? Since, he introduced a new gospel other than what was preached by the original apostles in the time of Jesus, as it says NOT to follow any new gospel, be it by any man or angel. Galatians: 6-9
 
dknight, the pope is infallible when speaking ex cathedra in the matters of faith and morals, not impeccable. the pope has a confessor he visits everyday.
 
Chris-WA;3105960:
C’mon Zerinus, I never said a prophet cannot make a mistake in his entire life. What I did say is that a true prophet cannot teach error in matters of faith. If your LDS prophets, be they current or old, teach error in matters of the faith, then they are false prophets, because one who teaches error is leading the flock astray. No one can look back in history and make excuses for what Joseph Smith or Brigham Young or Joseph F. Smith taught if that doesn’t happen to agree with what the current prophet teaches. I don’t care what any of them think about politics or medicine or science, but I do care what they have to teach about religion. So they can make all the mistakes they want in those other areas. But they are most certainly not allowed to teach error in matters of faith. If they do, how are the members supposed to tell the difference between what is correct and what is not?

It’s very interesting to see how modern LDS are so quick to claim the apostacy of the early church when it allegedly started teaching error. Yet when the same thing happens in Mormonism from time to time, it is automatically dismissed as “individual speculation,” having no bearing on the authenticity of the prophet. I wish Mormons would apply the same standards to their own prophets as they do to the early Christian church leaders. I guess you can’t because if you made the same allowances for error in the early church you as you allow for people like Joseph Smith and Brigham Young, you wouldn’t be able to claim apostacy in the first place.
Can you define for us exactly what “ex cathedra” means in Catholic theology; and how it relates to the doctrine of Papal infallibility?

zerinus
What happened Chris? Got tongue-tied all of a sudden? No answers to give? Or were you too embarrassed to give it? Don’t worry. If all else fails, you can turn to Wikipedia for help! Here, try this one out for size:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papal_infallibility

I found also a dictionary definition, if you are interested:

ex cathedra (with the full authority of the office) “the pope must speak ex cathedra for an encyclical to be infallible” (WordNet)

zerinus
 
zerinus,
Chris answered that in his blog ages ago no further response is required. 😃

When the pope speaks ex cathedra it means literally “from the throne”. Practically it means that he is speaking in his official capacity as pope on a matter of faith and morals. This is always documented as such so that there can be no confusion. much like the result of ecumenical councils this is where the magisterium is applied (the god given teaching authority of the church). thus we get dogma. these don’t change…ever.
 
What happened Chris? Got tongue-tied all of a sudden? No answers to give? Or were you too embarrassed to give it? Don’t worry. If all else fails, you can turn to Wikipedia for help! Here, try this one out for size:

en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papal_infallibility

I found also a dictionary definition, if you are interested:

ex cathedra (with the full authority of the office) “the pope must speak ex cathedra for an encyclical to be infallible” (WordNet)
zerinus
No Z, but maybe you should just go ahead and get to your point because I have no idea what you are driving at.
 
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