Was it preordained that mankind commit original sin?

[R_C]

Then what do you believe Jesus’ function as G-d the Son and G-d Incarnate would be in relation to G-d the Father without the Fall of mankind?

I guess it would be the loving relationship of the Father and the Son The Son would have still come into the flesh, to lift mankind from the realm of “mere” humanity into something greater…and as the pure spirits watched in awe, the lower beings who were partially spirit partially flesh would be partakers of the divine nature as they became members of the mystical body of the Son! This divine plan did not require - in our view - the fall of mankind. The consequence of the fall of mankind was that in order for this to be realized, the Incarnate Word had to endure the Passion and Death.

However, I find little point in arguing what would have happened, because ultimately G-d, being omniscent, foresaw (even in granting us and respecting our free will) that the Fall of mankind would have taken place. So truly there was no second plan or change of mind…G-d knew, or, rather, knows, everything in one perfect, eternal thought

 

[devoutchristian]

The fact that Bob always sins in all possible worlds does not mean there is no free-will. It just means that Bob just doesn’t like to do what God wants him to do because THAT IS WHO HE IS. That is what makes Bob a “Bob” and not a “Peter”.

No, Bob’s sin is his own choice, not part of his identity, if it were part of his identity then that would mean that God caused his sin by making him that way.