O
oneofmany
Guest
That is true but if someone does not have the disability of being attracted to men and not many in our society have that problem, then Jesus had no problems in that area. Just like he was not tempted to be a pedophile. Satan could tell Jesus that he could have any man he wanted sexually and if one is not attracted to the opposite sex it wouldn’t be a temptation that would mean anything.I cannot see any evidence in scripture that could be read that way. It would not be intended to convey that meaning, given the attitudes of the time. But if it were true, would that say anything at all about Jesus that is not accepted by the Church? The Gospels say he was tempted. The descriptions suggest he was tempted by the sin of pride. Why not by the sin of lust? And why not men, rather than women? I know someone is going to say: he was God, and therefore would not have been ‘disordered’ in his thinking. But is a tendency to pride any less disordered, or a tendency to worship Satan (which he was tempted to do)? And I think there is quite a long history of the Church holding that these were genuine temptations. Why could, from the catholic point of view, Jesus not have been sexually attracted to men? And why could he have not, from the Catholic point of view, formed close gay friendships unencumbered by attraction to women? I can see that from the catholic point of view it would be hard to believe he would not have been celibate, but is there really a problem with thinking he might have been (not that he was, on the evidence), or could have been, a celibate gay?
Some wanted to say Jesus and John were lovers since it says in the bible Jesus loved John more. I said they might as well say Jesus was a pedophile then since John was the youngest apostle and much younger than Jesus. Anything to rationalize ones behaviour when needed can be found in the bible if you want to go there.
I guess this won’t ever end. Some say Jesus and Mary Madeline were lovers. Some will then say Jesus was bi-sexual. Really dumb.