Yes Jesus was (is) incapable of sinning because there was no desire for sin in Him, and it is the desire for sin that leads to sin.
Actually, there was a desire for food in Jesus - not a desire for sin.
No one has a desire for sin, but we all have a desire to have satisfied appetites, even Jesus.
However, he did not “imagine satisfying his own desire” (He did not “do the flesh’s forethought into satisfying desire” which Paul describes in Romans 13:14, or as James describes it, “desire when it has conceived [in forethought or visualization of getting what you desire] gives birth to sin [to Entering INTO Temptation]”
Being tempted [feeling the hunger] is different than Entering Into Temptation [doing the deed].
Jesus did what Paul and James described: He did not visualize self-satisfaction (“I could turn these stones into bread, then they would be mine to eat”) but instead he told his Father of his hunger, but Satan he told that he would live by the Word of his Father, as James describes it that if you lack anything (desires, appetites) you should ask God “who gives generously to all without finding fault, and it will be given to you.”
His Love for his Father left no room in his thoughts for self-satisfaction forethought, the flesh’s forethought, thus he could not sin, would not sin, because his will was focused in Love alone.