I believe you are mis-representing me. Earlier, you were taking apart a strawman that what the priest wears affects the validity of the sacrament. That is not what I meant. Now you are trying to equate what I am saying with the heresy of believing sacramental validity depends on the purity from sin of the priest.
You were the one who stated that the mere facts that a priest dresses casually ( regardless entirely of any mention of the reasons the priest may have for doing so - eg engagements immediately pre or post confession that require the casual garb and allow no time to change) and holds a particular coffee cup (again regardless entirely of whether he even saw that writing on it! Maybe he didn’t see it at all. Maybe his eyesight is poor and he didn’t have his glasses on him.) is reason to question their knowledge of the sacraments.
That necessarily leads to the conclusion that knowledge of said sacraments is (reasonably, not necessarily perfectly) related to garb and behaviour irrespective of the reasons for said garb and behaviour. Casual garb is an indicia of lack of understanding of the sacraments. Which can only mean that garb that is NOT casual is an indicia of understanding of them.
“A gem is a gem no matter who gives it to you” would only work if there was no such criteria as “correct intention”. But, correct intention is one of the three criteria for a valid sacrament. And as I said before, if the priest treats the sacrament as a casual event, is irreverent, and doesn’t bother to wear the correct vesture, his intention can be up to questioning.
Merely because of casual dress and holding a particular coffee cup? (Again, note that you know NOTHING about the reasons the priest may have had for doing so, and there are many perfectly innocent and valid ones at least for the dress, and at least one or two plausible explanations for the cup).
By the way - what is the ‘correct intention’? One who baptises must merely have the intention to ‘do as the Church does’ in baptising. They don’t even need to personally believe in GOD to be able to baptise!
One who absolves sins, surely, must have the intention to absolve sins in God’s name. Why on earth would casual garb indicate that the priest may not believe that he is truly absolving sins in God’s name? Does Christ’s casual (to put it mildly) garb on the cross indicate any lack of understanding or ability to efficaciously forgive on his part?
Let me put to you a case where a priest is sleeping in the middle of the day - perhaps he has a touch of flu or something. Someone knocks on the presbytery door seeking confession. Mindful of Canon Law requirement that a minister is always to hear the confessions of the faithful when they reasonably seek to be heard, the priest judges that the person is reasonably seeking, and does not delay, but hears the confession then and there, still in his pyjamas.
How on earth is this priest in any way less likely to have correct (or even different) knowledge or intent than if he would have had left the penitent waiting for who knows however long while he rummaged around for vestments and a stole?
Again, being that we do not know WHY the OP’s priest was dressed the way he was or carrying the cup he carried, we must assume that you are judging entirely by appearances, and the priest in pyjamas has no better (in fact if anything he has a worse) appearance than the OP’s.