My point is that to act before the indult was granted was to act without proper permission from Rome. If no indult was needed then why were indults granted, and why are indults still required to before a bishop may introduce Communion in the hand?
Your question is a bit along the lines of the issue of the abrogation, or lack of abrogation, of the EF after Paul VI introduced the OF.
It was nearly universally held that the EF was abrogated, and yet no one did the research to determine that until Benedict XVI had the research done. Oh. No abrogation.
The fact that an indult was granted is not proof that an indult had to be granted; it is only proof that it in fact was granted.
The proof that it had to be granted is the showing of a rule that clearly prohibited CITH. Perhaps, since you are so insistent that the bishops were disobedient, you can state the rule including its proper citation, saying such.
On another issue, you are both right and wrong. Yes, the authority of the Pope has universal, full, immediate and supreme power; but what you don’t say is that the Pope does not micromanage the Church; and does not have a rule for every possible issue that may come up liturgically. The rules which a bishop does not have liturgical authority over are fairly clearly set out; and where the bishops have authority, that too is spelled out clearly. But presuming that answers all questions is presuming that we have far more regulations than actually exist.
I spoke about the Franciscans’ permission to make a point; apparently, from the garbled response you made to Pro Vobis’ response to me, you didn’t get it so I will spell it out.
In Europe, it was most likely not a tremendous secret that the Franciscans received CITH; after all, it had been going on for about 700 to 750 years. Not each and every bishop - in fact a goodly number of them - are not experts in all matters of the Church. I certainly would not go into shock if I were to find that a) bishops knew of the Franciscan practice; b) some priests requested permission to do so, and c) the bishops granted it, on an assumption that it was not forbidden (the point you seem to be making without a citation), based on the 700+ years of the Franciscan practice. Factually, it was permitted; and was not a recent innovation as it had been going on since the 1200’s.
Disobedience is a strong charge. As Brother JR has said, it appears the only people using the term are traditionalists, and none of them ever cite anything to back the statement up. This is an issue that elicits strong opinions among traditionalists, opinions so strong that they make statements like “grabbing it and popping it in their mouth”.
In all the years I have seen CITH, I have never, ever seen anyone grab a Host; nor have I ever seen anything that would fit the term “popping it in their mouth”. Never. The whole tenor of such statements reeks of “I’m holy and all of them are profaning the Eucharist”. It may well be that it occurs in some areas; and if it does, it is a matter of catechesis. And if the person receiving is not catechized, whose fault is that - theirs, or the number of priests before that day who had multiple opportunities to do so and didn’t?
So I invite you to cite the rule that the bishops disobeyed, which would at least be intellectually more honest than simply parroting the same statement; that would at least get us to the technical stage. From there, we would still have to show fault, which is to say, we would have to show that they were even aware of the rule cited. Assuming for the moment that you will cite the rule, a broad statement of “disobedience” has the underlying element of knowledge. If there was know knowledge, then the most that could be said was the bishops were in error - statement that is far more charitable than a charge which has a component of willfulness.