Was the Virgin Birth a mistranslation?

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Another Catholic English translation of the Bible that I don’t think is given enough attention is the Christian Community Bible published by Claretian Press, which is used by the Claretian Order in the Philippines. It is a fresh translation of the Bible and its footnotes and book introductions are a hundred times better than the American NAB’s. (It’s also got an imprimatur and official support by a religious order and the hierarchy of the Philippines, which helps establish its credibility too.)

Anyway, its translation of Matthew 1:25 is one that I think deserves careful consideration, because if I’m reading it right it is perfectly defensible from the Greek and is much more clear than the usual English translation of that verse: “24 When Joseph awoke, he did what the angel of the Lord had told him to do, and he took his wife to his home. 25 He did not have any marital relations with her. When she gave birth to a son, Joseph gave him the name Jesus.”

The rest of the CCB Bible can be found here: ccbpastoralbible.wordpress.com/online-bible/english-version/
I will have a look! So many today miss the fact that Matthew wrote 1:25 to demonstrate that it was indeed a virgin birth, thus miraculous and not natural, and that Jesus was the fulfillment of prophecy. If Isaiah did not mean virgin in 7:14, why would Matthew write this verse?
 
Another Catholic English translation of the Bible that I don’t think is given enough attention is the Christian Community Bible published by Claretian Press, which is used by the Claretian Order in the Philippines. It is a fresh translation of the Bible and its footnotes and book introductions are a hundred times better than the American NAB’s. (It’s also got an imprimatur and official support by a religious order and the hierarchy of the Philippines, which helps establish its credibility too.)

Anyway, its translation of Matthew 1:25 is one that I think deserves careful consideration, because if I’m reading it right it is perfectly defensible from the Greek and is much more clear than the usual English translation of that verse: “24 When Joseph awoke, he did what the angel of the Lord had told him to do, and he took his wife to his home. 25 He did not have any marital relations with her. When she gave birth to a son, Joseph gave him the name Jesus.”

The rest of the CCB Bible can be found here: ccbpastoralbible.wordpress.com/online-bible/english-version/
I like this translation too; it’s a lot more “centrist” than the NAB, and retains key passages (Luke 1:26-38, Isaiah 7:14). In fact, I’ve bought copies for both my wife and my mother. 🙂 Definitely worth checking out if you want a “simple English” Bible, though it does borrow a good deal from the Jerusalem Bible.
 
I remember in class asking my atheist feminist theology teacher (at Australian Catholic University) why the expert Jewish scribes translated the word ‘almah’ as ‘virgin’ 200 years before the Christ.

She was taken aback by the question and responded ……………… ‘maybe they didn’t know the Greek words for young girl’.

🤷
 
I remember in class asking my atheist feminist theology teacher (at Australian Catholic University) why the expert Jewish scribes translated the word ‘almah’ as ‘virgin’ 200 years before the Christ.

She was taken aback by the question and responded ……………… ‘maybe they didn’t know the Greek words for young girl’.

🤷
:rotfl: Somebody should compile a list of anecdotes exemplifying atheist wishful thinking. They would make a great meme series.

One I’ve heard recently happened in a Philosophy of Religion class full of modern unbelieving students and an unbelieving teacher, in which he was discussing Thomas Aquinas’ Argument from Motion. And he was apparently giving a very good explanation of the argument, but finally got to the end and said how he thought atheists should answer it; and one of his female students spoke up and said, “Oh, okay, you were scaring me, I thought there was actually a good argument for God there for a second.” – That’s a pretty clear example of not wanting the argument to be valid more than thinking it through logically. So yeah, wishful thinking is alive and well among atheist circles.
 
This is a moot point.

The answer to the question: “Was the Virgin Birth a mistranslation?” is simply: So what.

The fact that Mary was the Mother of God and remained a perpetual virgin was taught and accepted by Christians before any writings were translated (or mistranslated, for that matter). This doctrine had spread throughout the known world before Sacred Scriptures were accepted as such.
 
T. Michael Law

Moreover, the first part of Isa. 7:14 says, "Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign…”

What sort of sign would it be for a ‘young woman’ to be found with child?
dmar198 & JerryZ 👍
I’m on my phone, but on my computer I have one of the Church Father’s (ad200ish) who makes this very point. He then mocks the fact that there are plenty of young women having babies all the time!

Anyone have the reference?
 
I’m on my phone, but on my computer I have one of the Church Father’s (ad200ish) who makes this very point. He then mocks the fact that there are plenty of young women having babies all the time!

Anyone have the reference?
St. Justin Martyr makes this argument in ~160 A.D. You assert that the Scripture is not as they have expounded it, but says, ‘Behold, the young woman shall conceive,’ as if great events were to be inferred if a woman should beget from sexual intercourse: which indeed all young women do, with the exception of the barren. (Dialog with Trypho Chapter 84) St. Irenaeus also discusses it in ~180 A.D. For what great thing or what sign should have been in this, that a young woman conceiving by a man should bring forth—a thing which happens to all women that produce offspring? But since an unlooked-for salvation was to be provided for men through the help of God, so also was the unlooked-for birth from a virgin accomplished; God giving this sign, but man not working it out. (Against Heresies Book III Chapter 21 Paragraph 6) Tertullian also makes this argument in ~198 A.D. You have the audacity to lie, as if the Scripture [said] that not a virgin, but a young female, was to conceive and bring forth; you are refuted even by this fact, that a daily occurrence—the pregnancy and parturition of a young female, namely—cannot possibly seem anything of a sign. And the setting before us, then, of a virgin-mother is deservedly believed to be a sign. (Answer to the Jews Chapter 9) Origen also discusses this, with a longer argument, in ~248 A.D. Now, if a Jew should split words, and say that the words are not, Lo, a virgin, but, Lo, a young woman, we reply that the word Almah—which the Septuagint have rendered by a virgin, and others by a young woman—occurs, as they say, in Deuteronomy, as applied to a virgin, in the following connection: “If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; then you shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and you shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he humbled his neighbour’s wife.” And again: “But if a man find a betrothed damsel in a field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die: but unto the damsel you shall do nothing; there is in her no sin worthy of death.”

But that we may not seem, because of a Hebrew word, to endeavor to persuade those who are unable to determine whether they ought to believe it or not, that the prophet spoke of this man being born of a virgin, because at his birth these words, God with us, were uttered, let us make good our point from the words themselves. The Lord is related to have spoken to Ahaz thus: “Ask a sign for yourself from the Lord your God, either in the depth or height above;” and afterwards the sign is given, “Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son.” What kind of sign, then, would that have been—a young woman who was not a virgin giving birth to a child? (Contra Celsus Book I Chapters 34-35)
 
Irenaeus (A.D. 120-202) wrote
• Wherefore also the Lord Himself gave us a sign, in the depth below, and in the height above, which man did not ask for, because he never expected that a virgin could conceive, or that it was possible that one remaining a virgin could bring forth a son, and that what was thus born should be “God with us”? Against Heresies, 19.3.

God Himself giving a sign in the house of David. For what great thing or what sign should have been in this, that a young woman conceiving by a man should bring forth—a thing which happens to all women that produce offspring?
Against Heresies (Book III, Chapter 21)

dmar198 👍
 
I think this is an area where Scripture scholar Raymond Brown presents a very solid refutation. The problem is that the scholar of that article is claiming that Christians though Jesus to be born of a virgin because of Is 7:14, Raymond Brown argues that Christians *first *had the tradition that Jesus was born of a virgin and *then *went looking for Scripture to support it.

Brown argues that the nativity stories are essentially midrash, they are theological stories that connect the dots of tradition. Most modern scholars agree that Matthew and Luke would not have had access to each other’s nativity stories. Brown accepts this theory and states that the two nativity stories are almost impossible to reconcile. In one the angel appears to Joseph, the other Mary. In one the holy family seems to be residents of Bethlehem and have to flee in the middle of the night and eventually settle in Nazareth. In the other, the holy family are residents of Nazareth and are forced to journey to Bethlehem and then apparently peacefully return home to Nazareth. Brown says the two stories cannot be reconciled except for their basic elements:
  1. Mary becomes pregnant prior to be married to Joseph.
  2. The pregnancy is announced as a miracle by an angel.
  3. Jesus is born in Bethlehem.
  4. Strangers who have knowledge of the special birth come to give honor.
  5. Jesus is raised in Nazareth.
Brown argues that those 5 points are the earliest Christian tradition of the birth of Jesus. Matthew and Luke then used midrash to connect the dots in a coherent theological story. Why would two authors who don’t know each other and don’t have access to each other’s writings **both **create a story where Mary becomes pregnant prior to marriage? Its entirely possible (and much less potentially scandalous) that Mary could have conceived Jesus within marriage, whether miraculously or naturally yet two separate Christian authors state empathically that that was not the case.

By Brown’s hypothesis its far more likely that Matthew went searching the Scriptures to find prophecy to apply to the birth of Jesus. In this hypothesis the translation of Is 7:14 is irrelevant to Christian faith in the virgin birth.

If she’s going to claim that the virgin birth tradition is stolen from pagan myths then she needs to explain why Matthew who is writing to a Jewish community would consider pagan myths to be applicable to a Jewish mindset…
 
St. Justin Martyr makes this argument in ~160 A.D. You assert that the Scripture is not as they have expounded it, but says, ‘Behold, the young woman shall conceive,’ as if great events were to be inferred if a woman should beget from sexual intercourse: which indeed all young women do, with the exception of the barren. (Dialog with Trypho Chapter 84) St. Irenaeus also discusses it in ~180 A.D. For what great thing or what sign should have been in this, that a young woman conceiving by a man should bring forth—a thing which happens to all women that produce offspring? But since an unlooked-for salvation was to be provided for men through the help of God, so also was the unlooked-for birth from a virgin accomplished; God giving this sign, but man not working it out. (Against Heresies Book III Chapter 21 Paragraph 6) Tertullian also makes this argument in ~198 A.D. You have the audacity to lie, as if the Scripture [said] that not a virgin, but a young female, was to conceive and bring forth; you are refuted even by this fact, that a daily occurrence—the pregnancy and parturition of a young female, namely—cannot possibly seem anything of a sign. And the setting before us, then, of a virgin-mother is deservedly believed to be a sign. (Answer to the Jews Chapter 9) Origen also discusses this, with a longer argument, in ~248 A.D. Now, if a Jew should split words, and say that the words are not, Lo, a virgin, but, Lo, a young woman, we reply that the word Almah—which the Septuagint have rendered by a virgin, and others by a young woman—occurs, as they say, in Deuteronomy, as applied to a virgin, in the following connection: “If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her; then you shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and you shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he humbled his neighbour’s wife.” And again: “But if a man find a betrothed damsel in a field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die: but unto the damsel you shall do nothing; there is in her no sin worthy of death.”

But that we may not seem, because of a Hebrew word, to endeavor to persuade those who are unable to determine whether they ought to believe it or not, that the prophet spoke of this man being born of a virgin, because at his birth these words, God with us, were uttered, let us make good our point from the words themselves. The Lord is related to have spoken to Ahaz thus: “Ask a sign for yourself from the Lord your God, either in the depth or height above;” and afterwards the sign is given, “Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son.” What kind of sign, then, would that have been—a young woman who was not a virgin giving birth to a child? (Contra Celsus Book I Chapters 34-35)
Thanks! Those are all awesome and I was thinking of Tertullian’s.

God bless!
 
These claims always seem to go after the passage in Isaiah rather than the one in Matthew.

As someone else already pointed out, we don’t believe in the Virgin Birth on the basis of a single ambiguous statement in Isaiah. We believe in the Virgin Birth because some of the Evangelists outright state that it occurred, in the equally-inspired New Testament. That Matthew cites the statement by Isaiah as a prefigurement of the event does not make Isaiah the sole basis for the event itself. Indeed, it seems quite plausible that Isaiah was directly referring to the ordinary birth of a child in his own time – the ‘sign’ in the original context isn’t the birth itself as a miraculous event, but a predicted world event that will occur while the soon-to-be-born child is still quite young. However, because we believe as Christians that Matthew was just as inspired as Isaiah, it must also be true that Isaiah’s statement had a double meaning, perhaps one unrecognized at the time, that would later be seen to predict the miraculous birth of the Messiah.

Usagi
 
The Complete Jewish Bible has the following:

Therefore Adonai himself
will give you people a sign:
the young woman
will become pregnant,
bear a son and name him ‘Immanu El [God is with us].*

Is the significance of this passage that (1) the young woman will become pregnant, (2) that she will bear a son, or (3) that she will name him Immanu El?

In some interpretations, she was a virgin before she conceived. However, did she remain a virgin at the time of conception? There is no mention of how she became pregnant.

Also, it says “the young woman”. Which young woman?

Another version of the Bible says this:
"So the Master is going to give you a sign anyway. Watch for this: A girl who is presently a virgin will get pregnant. She’ll bear a son and name him Immanuel (God-With-Us)."

So here the implication is that the woman originally is a virgin but does not remain so.
 
Mary is perpetual virgin–to deny that is to be a heretic!

The Holy Spirit does not contradict Himself–if the Holy Spirit inspired Matthew to say “Virgin” then the Holy Spirit also inspired Isaiah to say “Virgin”.

Isaiah 7:14 is a great litmus test–it reveals which translators are infected with modernism and which ones truly believe the FACTS of the Catholic faith.
 
Mary is perpetual virgin–to deny that is to be a heretic!

The Holy Spirit does not contradict Himself–if the Holy Spirit inspired Matthew to say “Virgin” then the Holy Spirit also inspired Isaiah to say “Virgin”.

Isaiah 7:14 is a great litmus test–it reveals which translators are infected with modernism and which ones truly believe the FACTS of the Catholic faith.
If Mary is perpetual virgin, how did James become Jesus’ brother?
 
If Mary is perpetual virgin, how did James become Jesus’ brother?
No word for cousin, nephew, uncle, aunt in old Hebrew or Aramaic.

They had to use convoluted ways to express the concept therefore brother was a catch all for all relatives.

Actually this is quite prevalent even today in some cultures.

 
No word for cousin, nephew, uncle, aunt in old Hebrew or Aramaic.

They had to use convoluted ways to express the concept therefore brother was a catch all for all relatives.

Actually this is quite prevalent even today in some cultures.

If that is true, there is no necessary blood line that connects Jesus or Joseph or Mary to the House of David. How do we know for sure that Isaac and Ishmael were really the sons of Abraham? How do we know that Solomon was really the son of David?
 
The Eastern Christian traditions holds that St Joseph was a widower and advanced in age when Jesus was conceived. The brothers and sisters of Jesus were St Joseph’s children by his previous marriage.
 
If that is true, there is no necessary blood line that connects Jesus or Joseph or Mary to the House of David. How do we know for sure that Isaac and Ishmael were really the sons of Abraham? How do we know that Solomon was really the son of David?
Isaac and Ishmael were really the sons of Abraham because the Bible says explicitly that he sired them both. Solomon was really the son of David for the same reason. However, the Bible does not say that Mary bore any child other than Jesus, so your argument backfires.

Moreover, all the evidence in Scripture indicates that the people commonly called Jesus’ brothers were the sons of relatives of Mary and Joseph and were called “brothers” because that’s how the Jews talked about their relatives. Plus, the early historians of the Church (such as Hegesippius and Eusebius) still knew the families of the “brothers of the Lord” and told who their parents and grandparents were – and Mary wasn’t any of their ancestors according to those historians. Now you and I may disagree about the interpretation of Scripture; but don’t tell me you know more than the historians of the period and the families of the people involved.
 
If that is true, there is no necessary blood line that connects Jesus or Joseph or Mary to the House of David.
It is a slight diversion from the original question, but…

Son of David
The silence of the enemies of the gospel, both heathen and Jewish, during even the first century, is itself a sufficient proof, that neither inconsistency nor corruption could be then alleged against this part of the evangelical history.
If the lineal descent of Jesus from David were not indisputable, he could not possess the character essential to the Messias, nor any right to the Jewish throne. We may confidently then assert, that his regular lineal descent from David could not be disproved, since it was not even disputed at a time when alone it could have been done so successfully; and by those persons who were so deeply interested in falsifying the first Christian authorities. -Haydock, G. L. (1859). (Lk 3:22).

See also, Matt 22:41–46, Mark 12:35–37, Luke 20:41–44; Click here
 
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