H
Hodos
Guest
I would agree, that if you accept the pericope adulterae as canonical (which is a questionable presumption) that it doesn’t necessarily contradict the other teachings of scripture. I would say that the application you attempted to make is actually a misread of the passage, assuming that somehow Jesus is inferring that the state no longer has the ability to impose penalty on a person convicted of a crime. That wasn’t the point of the passage at all. And again, that is granting you the assumption that the passage is authentic for argument sake."…the pericope adulterae–by being included in the Vulgate–does not contain errors of faith or morals when properly understood.