We say to Protestants that the deuterocanonicals were in the Septuagint

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JakeTheBaptist said:
NO , the apocrypha is not a part of the Bible! At the Jewish council of Jamnia in 90 AD they denied their revelation, Jesus virtually ignored these books, and they are referenced nowhere in scripture! It also brings up unbiblical doctrine such as praying for the dead!šŸ˜›
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You are correct. The apocryphal writings and the pseudographia are not in Catholic bibles.

However, and this is where you have been taught grave error: Both the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Churches, for nearly 2,000 years, have had and used what we refer to as the Deuterocanonical books. Devout Jews used them since before Christ.

Your ā€œCouncil of Jamniaā€ if it ever existed, was by and for the Pharisees. They rejected Christ and demanded His death. Jesus Christ condemned the Pharisees seven-fold, a complete and total biblical condemnation. See Matthew 23, if you doubt this. And you want to use the Phariseeā€™s anti-Christian canon of scripture?

If you can name the protestant church council that made a ruling on the books that belong in the bible, weā€™re all ears! If not, please explain where the ā€œSacred Table of Contentsā€ of the bible came from.
 
JakeTheBaptist said:
NO , the apocrypha is not a part of the Bible! At the Jewish council of Jamnia in 90 AD they denied their revelation, Jesus virtually ignored these books, and they are referenced nowhere in scripture! It also brings up unbiblical doctrine such as praying for the dead!šŸ˜›
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  1. The council at Jamnia was one of Pharisaic Judaism. You would take the opinion of Pharisees? They bear Jesusā€™ seven woes. How could their opinion have any weight with Christians?
  2. Jesus also ignored Nahum, Esther, and Obadiah. By the same logic, they should be excluded from the Old Testament.
  3. And if these books are Scripture, then praying for the dead is a scriptural practice. But you start instead with praying for the dead is unscriptural, then on that basis, reject books that do support praying for the dead. How is that not the logical fallacy of begging the question?
 
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