D
Duane1966
Guest
At the Council of the Church of Africa (390) and above all at the Council of Carthage, (419), which Saint Augustine attended, similar norms were adopted. These councils recalled the ecclesiastical praxis of the obligation of perfect chastity, affirming that such praxis is of apostolic tradition.
Pope Siricius answering a specific consultation about clerical celibacy in 385 affirmed that bishops and priests who continue marital relations after ordination violate an irrevocable law from the very inception of the Church that binds them to continence.
Eusebius of Caesarea, Demonstratio Evangelicam I,9 (c. 320)
“It is fitting, according to the Scripture, that a bishop be the husband of an only wife. But this being understood, it behooves consecrated men, and those who are at the service of God’s cult, to abstain thereafter from conjugal intercourse with their wives. As to those who were not judged worthy of such a holy ministry, Scripture grants them [conjugal intercourse] while saying quite clearly to all that marriage is honorable and the nuptial bed is without stain, and that God judges profligates and adulterers.”
Eusebius here makes it clear that just because Scripture allows a bishop or cleric to have a wife, it does not follow that he is free to exercise his conjugal rights. Notice that Eusebius is an Eastern Father and that presumably this was the discipline in the East in the early 4th century.
St. Cyril of Jerusalem, The 12th Catechesis, 25 (c. 350)
“To the most Pure and the Master of Purity it was fitting to be born from a pure bed. For if the one who is a good priest for the sake of Jesus abstains from relations with women, how could Jesus Himself be born of [the union] between a man and a woman?”
The argument presumes a continent priesthood. Taking as a starting point the fact that priests, at least those that are “good”, “abstain from relations with women”, St. Cyril points out how fitting this is given that Jesus Himself was not born as the result of conjugal intercourse. How could Jesus expect the priesthood called by His name to practice continence if He Himself was not born without conjugal relations? But since Jesus was not the result of conjugal relations, He can likewise insist on a similar sort of purity from His priests. The argument assumes that the reader already understands that continence is a discipline and reasons back from that to argue for the Virgin Birth of Christ.
Ambrosiaster, Commentary on 1st Epistle to Timothy (c. 380)
“Now there should be seven deacons, several priests (two per church), and only one bishop for each city, which is why they must abstain from any conjugal relations; they have to be present in church every day, and they do not have the necessary time to purify themselves properly after conjugal unions, as the priests of old used to do. They have to offer the sacrifice every week, and even if the liturgy is not offered every day in rural areas or in territories outside the empire, it is at least twice a week for the local people. And, moreover, there is no lack of sick people to baptize every day. Indeed, it was because they were not expected to go frequently to the temple and had a private life that the concession [to use their marital rights] was granted to the ancients *. If the Apostle directs laymen to abstain temporarily in order to attend to prayer, how much more for deacons and priests, who must pray day and night for the people entrusted to them? Therefore, they must be purer than others because they are God’s representatives.”
Ambrosiaster offers what was, by his day, the classic argument for continence, citing both the Levitical example and St. Paul’s admonition in 1 Corinthians 7:5.
Ambrosiaster, Quastiones Veteris et Novi Testamenti (c. 380)
"But people might say: If it is permitted and good to marry, why should priests not be authorized to take wives? In other words, in other words, why should ordained men not be permitted to be united [to wives]? There are indeed things that are not permitted to anyone, without exception; on the other hand, there are some things that are permitted at certain times but not at others. Fornication is never permitted to anyone; to do business is at times licit and at times illicit. Indeed, before becoming a priest, one may do business; once he is a cleric, he is not permitted to do so. And for a Christian it is at times permitted, and at times not, for him to unite himself with a wife.
…Is everything that is permitted in the presence of other people also permitted in the presence of the emperor? All the more so is it then in God’s matters. This is why the priest must be more pure than others; indeed, he is seen as God’s representative and is actually His vicar; so that what is permitted to others is not permitted to him; he must take every day the place of Christ, either by praying for the people or by offering [the sacrifice], or by administering baptism. It is not only to him that conjugal relations are forbidden, but also to his minister: he too must be all the more pure as the matters of his ministry are holy."
Ambrosiaster here cites the permanent nature of priestly ministry in favor of continence, and says that this is why priests cannot have conjugal relations with their wives. Note he does not say that a priest cannot be married, only that a priest cannot have conjugal relations. He does note, however, that an already ordained priest cannot enter into marriage, which has always been true in the East and the West.*
). But because I’m a* woman*.
ne apostle, including Peter taking a woman/wife along in ministry. The context of the verse counts. It is absurd to say it is anything else. If you do you are reading it into it.