J
Joe_5859
Guest
Someone asked me this the other day and it sort of stumped me. I mean, I’m used the question as to why it’s okay and even appropriate to call priests “Father”, and also why it does not contradict the verse in the Gospels where Jesus says “Call no man Father.” That’s a very common and standard apologetics question.
But when did the practice begin and why? Does anyone know any good articles on that question? I tried searching but everything I have come across just answers the common apologetics question to show it’s not anti-scriptural.
But when did the practice begin and why? Does anyone know any good articles on that question? I tried searching but everything I have come across just answers the common apologetics question to show it’s not anti-scriptural.