Not even going to read it.
Clearly says Stephen was full of grace
@benny12, as you know, English was not the original language of the Holy Scriptures.
Question:
Was Mary the only one who was “full of grace”? Or were Jesus (John 1:14) and Stephen (Acts 6:8) also full of grace?
Answer:
It is true that both Jesus and Stephen are said to be “full of grace” in the English translations. However, the Greek phrase that is used for Jesus and Stephen is
pleres charitos, whereas the Greek word used with reference to Mary is
kecharitomene .
Being a simple adjective,
pleres charitos has a different connotation than
kecharitomene in that it suggests a completion of grace in the present moment. In the case of Stephen, God filled him with grace at the moment to prepare him for martyrdom. For Jesus, John is emphasizing that Jesus was full of grace
at the moment of the Incarnation. He tells us that Jesus remains full of grace later in verse sixteen: “And from his fullness have we all received, grace upon grace.”
Kecharitomene , however, is a perfect passive participle (a verbal adjective). Like
pleres charitos, it suggests that Mary is in a completed state of grace at the moment Gabriel approaches her. But unlike
pleres charitos , it is a completed and ongoing state in the present that is the result of a past action.
Source:
Only One Full of Grace? | Catholic Answers