What Catholic teachings do I object to?

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People need to be able to know what doctrines/decrees are considered “infallible” and which may or may not be such. Also like you, I agree that anything taught as doctrine should be scripturally defensible.
Like sola scriptura? 😃 As to doctrinal infallibility, you may consider anything taught via the “normal Magisterium” of the Church to be infallible. The Catholic belief is that revealed truth does not change.

Both you and the OP (and every Catholic) could greatly benefit from a copy of Catholicism for Dummies. Infallibility of the normal Magisterium is explained on page 80.

If your particular communion does not have a list of infallible teachings (i.e. catechism), why on earth would you want to belong to it?
 
If your particular communion does not have a list of infallible teachings (i.e. catechism), why on earth would you want to belong to it?
So is the catechism in its entirety regarded as infallible by Catholics? My understanding is that some Catholic teachings are regarded as doctrines (which are not classified as infallible), not dogmas (which are regarded as infallible).
 
So is the catechism in its entirety regarded as infallible by Catholics? My understanding is that some Catholic teachings are regarded as doctrines (which are not classified as infallible), not dogmas (which are regarded as infallible).
The liturgy of the Church and other factors, such as priestly celibacy in the Latin Rite, are disciplines which can and have changed. But, disciplines are the how and not the what. The what never changes, as it cannot change.

As well, there are some areas that remain, for God’s purposes, a mystery. Catholics are not required to be in absolute agreement in areas that require prudential judgment, such as how to address poverty or how to spread the Gospel. Those truths that are revealed by God can never change, and none has ever been changed. Man’s understanding of them has changed, and that accounts for any perceived differences. For example, there is little to no scriptural evidence that the early Church understood and taught the Trinity as doctrine. That had to be understood as Truth was revealed to and through the Apostles.

John 16:12-13
Knox Bible (KNOX)
12 I have still much to say to you, but it is beyond your reach as yet. 13 It will be for him, the truth-giving Spirit, when he comes, to guide you into all truth. He will not utter a message of his own; he will utter the message that has been given to him; and he will make plain to you what is still to come.
 
I believe the Holy Spirit still guides the church. I’m not exactly sure how this relates to the pope though?
What people overlook is that infallibility refers to the properly defined and duly declared Catholic doctrine. Now, obviously the Holy Spirit still guides the Church and still guides the members of the Church and still guides people who are not members of the Catholic Church.

One can extend the Holy Spirit’s guidance to the situation of a major Ecumenical Church Council. It is the protocol of major Church Councils which, in a sense, both seeks and allows the direct wisdom and guidance of the Holy Spirit when it comes to defining a Catholic doctrine. It is my understanding that the current Pope at the time of the Council’s closing gives his approval of formally defined and declared Catholic doctrines. What I am trying to say is that we should not necessarily consider one individual, e.g., a Pope as being infallibly responsible for a particular doctrine.

In the case of ex cathedra, also known as from the Chair of Peter, the Pope can declare a Catholic doctrine outside of a major Church Council. Nonetheless, the protocol leading to any declaration of a doctrine is still followed. It is the period, sometimes centuries, leading to the formulation of a doctrine which is guided with the wisdom of the Holy Spirit, especially expressed in Chapter 14, Gospel of John.

What I am trying to do is to shift popular concepts of infallibility to the reality of infallibility.
Can you explain what you mean by these last 4 points further, especially 2 and 4?
My apology but I am out of time. Even my answer to your first question is too brief as I am sure you have more questions.

My bet is that you are wondering about the statement that not all writings are infallible. That statement is one of the broadest ones which should go straight to what in my old neighborhood was the “circular file”. (waste basket) I stuck it in because of the usual misunderstandings regarding statements or teachings of a Pope or Bishop, etc.

Point 2 is a writer’s bridge between some of the points you have made and the Catechism of the Catholic Church, Second Edition.

Again, please accept my apology for such a brief outline of infallibility without having the time to go below the tip of the iceberg.

Blessings,
granny

“The shepherds sing; and shall I silent be?”
from the poem “Christmas” by George Herbert
 
We agree that the writers of Scripture were protected from error under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Though, I would not say that they were always and at every moment protected from error, though they definitely were inspired when writing scripture.
Well, then, this is exactly what the Catholic Church proclaims, ltwin!!!

For it seems to me that you now see that men, under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, can, indeed, be infallible!!!

cue the angelic choirs singing!!

Men (that is, the Catholic bishops, including the pope) are not “always and at every moment protected from error”. Only when, under the assistance of the Holy Spirit, they proclaim a teaching on faith and morals.
 
What I mean is how is sacred tradition determined? How do we decide which traditions are sacred tradition and which ones are just manmade?

That is why there is a need for a teaching authority…so help the laity in this determination…and it is not the individual who decides for himself…otherwise, you can see this mass confusion that has happened to the protestants.

What is Sacred Tradition…mark-shea.com/tradition.html

Sacred Tradition is the living and growing truth of Christ contained, not only in Scripture, but in the common teaching, common life, and common worship of the Church. That is why the Tradition that does not change can seem to have changed so much. For this common teaching, life and worship is a living thing-a truth which was planted as a mustard seed in first century Jerusalem and which has not ceased growing since-as our Lord prophesied in Mark 4:30-32. The plant doesn’t look like the seed, but it is more mustardy than ever.
I’m not an expert on Catholicism. I’m still learning a lot (which is one reason why I’m on “Catholic Answers”). I do know that ex cathedra statements are rare. However, its not frequency that I have a problem with. My hesitations are on principle.
 
Such a reading does make sense if you assume Apostolic Succession.

I agree. Not everyone who says “thus sayeth the Lord” is speaking on behalf of the Lord.

But you reach this conclusion by appealing to Apostolic Succession.
IT…if there is no apostolic succession…how would you apply this verse today…1John 4…6 We are from God, and whoever knows God listens to us; but whoever is not from God does not listen to us. This is how we recognize the Spirit[a] of truth and the spirit of falsehood.

Clement of Rome…when he wrote this to the Corinthians…what do you think he was speaking of:

44:2 and on this account, having received perfect foreknowledge, they appointed the above-mentioned as bishops and deacons: and then gave a rule of succession, in order that, when they had fallen asleep, other men, who had been approved, might succeed to their ministry.

57:1 Do ye, therefore, that have laid the foundation of the sedition submit yourselves to the presbyters, and be chastised to repentance, bending the knees of your hearts.

59:1 But if some should be disobedient to the things spoken by him through us, let them know that they will entangle themselves in no small transgression and danger,

And Ireneus…writing agains the Gnostics…who denied the sacramental nature of the Church…in AD200 or so…
It is within the power of all, therefore, in every Church, who may wish to see the truth, to contemplate clearly the tradition of the apostles manifested throughout the whole world; and we are in a position to reckon up those who were by the apostles instituted bishops in the Churches, and [to demonstrate] the succession of these men to our own times; those who neither taught nor knew of anything like what these [heretics] rave about. For if the apostles had known hidden mysteries, which they were in the habit of imparting to “the perfect” apart and privily from the rest, they would have delivered them especially to those to whom they were also committing the Churches themselves. For they were desirous that these men should be very perfect and blameless in all things, whom also they were leaving behind as their successors, delivering up their own place of government to these men; which men, if they discharged their functions honestly, would be a great boon [to the Church], but if they should fall away, the direst calamity.

What do you think Ireneus was writing about?
 
However, I find it odd that when some of the less reputable Popes in history are brought up, Catholics say things like “Yes, this person was immoral and corrupt but the office of the Pope is divinely protected so anything they said ex cathedra can be trusted.” How can anyone make such blanket statements like that? So, one issue I have is the assigning of infallibility to an office irrespective of the spiritual state of the person holding that office.
If you can read the encyclicals of the first pope without doubting its inspiration, knowing that St. Peter did the most vile of behaviors at Our Lord’s most excruciating time of life, then I think you can read the encyclicals of vile popes with the same tolerance.
 
The other problem I have is the lack of accountability. The Scriptures say that the spirits should be tested.
Amen!

But tested against what? What is the canon used?

Does Scripture tell us what the spirits should be measured up against?

Please cite the chapter and verse for this. Thanks.
When Popes make definitive rulings on matters of faith and claim that they are divinely protected from error where is the accountability and the discernment? And how should accountability be measured? By Scripture or a vague and undefined sacred tradition?
The accountability is in the Church, which is, as the Scriptures say, the pillar and foundation of truth. (1 Tim 3:15).
 
IAnd is David even analogous to the Papacy? God used David, but that didn’t mean that God spoke infallibly through all the Kings of Israel, even the one’s who worshiped Baal.
The similarity is this: God used a sinful man (David) to write infallibly (the Psalms). God also uses sinful men (the Magisterium) to write infallibly (ex cathedra teachings).

If you can accept the former, why can’t you accept the latter?
 
I Not so much the idea of a man being able to be infallible in certain circumstances, but that I don’t see a biblical basis for it.
The bolded section is huge, Traverse. Huge. That you can see that the charism of infallibility is not an affront to Christian theology is magnificent!

As far as the second part of your comment above, you’ll first have to provide a verse that says that everything we proclaim about God’s revelation must have “a biblical basis”.
 
But, no Pope has ever declared doctrine in a vacuum. It is always in unity with the college of Cardinals. Peter did not stand and say, “My way or the highway” in Acts 15. He spoke, influenced by the Holy Spirit, and it seemed good to all of the Bishops and Elders. No Pope since has done that, either. His authority is used to close the argument for all time, as it did with circumcision, and as it did against Arius. The Pope is the man who sets long-held beliefs in concrete - otherwise we would be cursed with “ongoing revelation.”
Excellent.
 
I made no such claim to infallibility. Neither did I make the claim that the Bible is free from error. That claim was already being made when I was born in 1989. I simply receive it and accept it in light of God’s word
But can you really be sure?
“All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness” (2 Tim. 3:16).
You are, no doubt, aware that Paul could only have been referring to the Old Testament scriptures as no New Testament existed at the time. So how do we know that the New Testament is “breathed out by God”?
Once again, it’s not a claim I make. It’s not up to me to decide such things.
But you have decided. On what basis have you made your decision and are you quite sure about your decision? Do you believe, 100%, that the Bible we have today is the inspired word of God?
 
On another thread PRmerger asked me “what teaching do you object to?” in reference to the Catholic Church. The question was sort of off topic, but I did want to provide an answer so I started this thread.

Off the top of my head, I told PRmerger that I disagree with papal infallibility and the exclusivist claims of the CC. He then responded:
We agree that the writers of Scripture were protected from error under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Though, I would not say that they were always and at every moment protected from error
 
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 On another thread PRmerger asked me "what teaching do you object to?" in reference to the Catholic Church. The question was sort of off topic, but I did want to provide an answer so I started this thread.
Thanks Itwin. I appreciate you very much.
Off the top of my head, I told PRmerger that I disagree with papal infallibility and the exclusivist claims of the CC. He then responded:
(“He” is a “She”) 😉
We agree that the writers of Scripture were protected from error under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. Though, I would not say that they were always and at every moment protected from error, though they definitely were inspired when writing scripture.
this is exactly how we understand “papal infallibility”. When he is teaching under the inspiration of the HS to guide the flock of God, the HS protects him from error. This is how we understand 1) the HS will guide the Church into “all Truth” and 2) The gates of hell will not prevail.

We believe that error paves the way through the gates of hell, so in order to keep His flock on the straight and narrow way, Jesus continues to guide His flock into all Truth with the same gift He gave to the writers of the NT.
As a Pentecostal, I continue to believe that God continues to speak to and inspire people. John 16:13 says, “When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come.”
Yes, and we will agree that God’s inspiration is not limited to the Holy Scriptures, to the councils, or to papal ex cathedra statements, however, we recognize that the HS has, and does, speak and lead in these ways to keep the Church on track.
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 While the canon is closed, revelation continues because the need to be guided into all truth did not end with the closing of the canon. Some Christians have the unfortunate habit of limiting what the Spirit can speak to the church today. They basically reduce the Holy Spirit to repeating the Bible and in the process they unintentionally raise the Bible above the Spirit who inspired it. But the Spirit existed before the Bible, and the proper hierarchy is Spirit, Scripture, Church. All that the Spirit speaks will be scriptural, but it will not always be in scripture.
Itwin, sometimes you sound so Catholic it is scary! 😃
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 The problem comes when we want to know how to test revelation. For Pentecostals, we discern what the Spirit is saying to the Church by referring to what the Spirit has always been saying to the Church as contained in Holy Scripture.
Yes, of course, this is very Catholic. The HS will not guide the Church in a direction that contradicts what He has already said. This is the very reason that we cannot approve of interpretations of Scripture that depart from what the Early Father’s believed and taught.
There is no warrant in Scripture for ascribing infallibility to any office. I have no doubt that the Lord has used many Popes, and I’m sure that at times they have spoken prophetically to the benefit of their flock.
Well, we understand what is written differently.

When Jesus gave Peter special and particular responsibility to feed and care for the flock, we understand that He was given certain gifts consistent with this charge.
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However, I find it odd that when some of the less reputable Popes in history are brought up, Catholics say things like "Yes, this person was immoral and corrupt but the office of the Pope is divinely protected so anything they said ex cathedra can be trusted." How can anyone make such blanket statements like that?
Because we believe the gifts and the call of God are irrevocable. The Petrine gifts (office) have been passed on to his successors, and we believe the promises of God to transcend the fallible nature of man. In reading Paul’s letters, we can see that he had a temper, and even descibes himself as “the least of all the Apostles”, and a “chief sinner”. He was a fallible man, who wrote infallibly. So too there have been corrupt popes, but God has made sure that they did not lead the Church into error. Unfortunately, some of them lacked sanctity to the extent that they fomented the divisions now present in the Church.
So, one issue I have is the assigning of infallibility to an office irrespective of the spiritual state of the person holding that office.
That is the nature of an office. Judas still occupied the “office” of Apostle, though he did not distinguish himself in that role. The President may distinguish himself in his office, or make a mockery out of it, but he is no less president.
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 The other problem I have is the lack of accountability. The Scriptures say that the spirits should be tested. When Popes make definitive rulings on matters of faith and claim that they are divinely protected from error where is the accountability and the discernment? And how should accountability be measured? By Scripture or a vague and undefined sacred tradition?
I think this is a just question, and may be easily answered by some informed history in how infallible proclamations are made. There is an incredible degree of accountablity, in ex cathedra, as well as councilar declarations.

Sacred Tradition is not vague and undefined. As much has been written about the word of God at work in the believers as there has on the Scriptures. It is more of a framework, a perspective, that helps us understand the scripture from the point of view of those who wrote it.
 
The similarity is this: God used a sinful man (David) to write infallibly (the Psalms). God also uses sinful men (the Magisterium) to write infallibly (ex cathedra teachings).

If you can accept the former, why can’t you accept the latter?
Please explain what you meant by this sentence. “The similarity is this: God used a sinful man (David) to write infallibly (the Psalms).”
 
Itwin already said where the bible claims its infallibility with “All Scripture is breathed out by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness” (2 Tim. 3:16). A discussion of the canon of the bible, of course, is a worthwhile and valid discussion, though.

Papal infallibility has bothered me as well.
May I respectfully suggest that some, not all, Catholics should also be bothered by “papal infallibility” enough to discern how the word “infallible” is applied to Catholic doctrines.
 
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