Or, could it just be that He sent the spoken word forth, so that it would not be twisted by the ignorant and unstable? He did say “He who hears you hears me” - even, and especially in foreign tongues on the Pentecost. If uneducated Peter could call the others ignorant, was he then superior to his Master in teaching or intellect? Not at all! Peter Himself said “Lord, You know all things” in John 21. Our Lord said “No servant is above his master” As well, the contant tradition of the Church, both East and West, before and after the great schism, maintains that Jesus wrote nothing, and certainly nothing has been preserved. If the scriptures that we have (any many others that did not pass the test) were carefully preserved at the risk of death, would not something written by the Lord Himself still be with us?
Let us recall here that in His temptation in the desert, the devil quoted scripture to Jesus, twisting its meaning. The written form, by itself, is not a relaible method of transmitting the Gospel. If it was, we would have Christian unity among bible-alone believers. As it is, quite the opposite is true. See also Nehemiah 8:5-8. Ezra and the Levites read the OT scriptures to the public, and interpreted it for them so that they would have a proper sense of the written word. In Acts 8:26-35, Phillip had to interpret Isaiah to the Ethiopian eunuch so that he, a learned man, could understand the prophet’s words. Since the majority of words in any dictionary have multiple meanings, someone in authority must be authorized, and not self-appointed, to interpret them.