What do you consider proof of God, if anything?

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By definition? Are you kidding me? This is your logical proof that infinities cannot exist?

I suppose that by definition “the thing that made the things for which there is no known maker” created the universe, but I can’t see how it could be part of any logical argument. You just keep insisting the infinities don’t exist as if you can will it to be true. Now you want it to be true by definition. Ok, you win. You’ve made your argument impervious to reason by refusing to make any argument at all. But why not just say that God exists by definition?
All you need to do to disprove it is to provide just one example of an actual infinity.

A potential infinite is not an actual infinite.

You claim that you can enumerate an infinity. I’m giving you the chance to do it right now.

You may need to split it over multiple posts. 😉

:coffeeread:
 
You have evaded the issue, rather clumsily.

Your contempt for Aristotle reveals more about you than him…
Actually, DH has a point, however, it is a bit incorrect. Aristotle did define “god”, conceptually, as the “thought of thought.” I think DH can see that that definition is slightly different from “eternally thinking of thinking.” Nevertheless, Aristotle did ascribe attributes to god, and, the attributes had to be of perfections of attributes.

The thought of thought is pretty good as a perfection of being, except, of course, God would be sitting there eternally pondering Himself since, according to Aristotle, He could only consider perfection and He would be the only perfection extant. It would make no sense to have created a universe.

jd
 
All you need to do to disprove it is to provide just one example of an actual infinity.

A potential infinite is not an actual infinite.

You claim that you can enumerate an infinity. I’m giving you the chance to do it right now.

You may need to split it over multiple posts. 😉

:coffeeread:
But I need not even give any examples since you haven’t made a single argument for why such actual infinities CANNOT exist. You’ve just asked to be disproved and deny any examples I give as disproof. You can say, “no, no, no” as many times as you want to every example that anyone ever offers and still have no logical argument that your claim is true. All you can say is that it hasn’t been disproved YET.

And nevertheless I have already pointed to many examples. You claim that these examples simply can’t work because by definition there are no such examples. If you are going to claim that infinities don’t exist by definition, why bother with rational arguments at all? Why not just cut to the chase and say that God exists and is exactly what you say he is by definition? The First Cause argument for God’s existence amounts to no more than a First Cause definition of God. The existence of what you’ve defined remains unproven.
 
Well, if it was this way, I would stop making any plans. There would be nothing I could count on EXCEPT my own mind. But, of course, even my plans could be illusory.

It would probably be best not to involve others in your plot 😃 , especially a love interest. I mean, how fair would that be?

jd
I think two concepts are being terribly conflated here.

I assert that it would be impossible to reason without accepting that everything is caused.

This may be because of one of two scenarios: either because everything is actually caused, or because we only understand what we can understand, and so we don’t consider the uncaused things.

In other words, it may simply be a limit of human reason to consider that for which there is no cause.

An interesting, and counter-intuitive example, is actually the free will. If a will is truly free (something which must be accepted in order to make moral judgments), then the will is either self-caused, or uncaused.

So practical reason, and the whole metaphysics of morals, rests upon the idea that the will is uncaused.

Speculative reason upon the mind would rest upon the idea that the will, like everything else that can be understood, must have outside causes.
 
I’ve already given several examples. Here are some more: there are an infinite number of directions that a compass can point to. There are an infinite number of real numbers between 1 and 2.

1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + …= 2. In mathematics this statement is not potentially true. It is actually true.

But whether or not I can think of any examples is really beside the point. One example would disprove your claim, but the lack of any available examples still doesn’t constitute a logical proof of your claim. You haven’t made a single argument for why such actual infinities CANNOT exist. You’ve just asked to be disproved and deny any examples I give as disproof. You can say, “no, no, no” as many times as you want to every example that anyone ever offers and still have no logical argument that your claim is true. All you can say is that it hasn’t been disproved YET.
Therefore, I guess, a triangle, all by itself, and not attached to, as a form, a physical being, is actually true? IOW, it is not a triangular shaped mobile being, or, a drawing representing the shape, but rather, I should be able to walk out my front door and encounter a (living, breathing) triangle one day? How shall I greet him/her/it? Perhaps, “Hello, Mr./Miss/Mrs. Triangle.”

Ergo, one day, perhaps there will be a number standing at my front door. And, I shall have to address him/her/it, too? Perhaps, Mr. One (or Two, or Three, etc.) will need to use my phone, or restroom. I am looking forward to such an encounter.

“Real Numbers” are real ONLY if they can be predicated of, and existing in, a kind of conjoined status with real things, or beings. Numbers don’t have existence - EXCEPT as regards quantity predicated of actually existing things. They are concepts, pure and simple.

jd
 
But I need not even give any examples since you haven’t made a single argument for why such actual infinities CANNOT exist.
You cannot attribute to the past, that which cannot be achieved in the future.

I feel sorry for you Leela. You speak so confidently, yet you’re so horribly wrong about such a simple concept.
 
“Real Numbers” are real ONLY if they can be predicated of, and existing in, a kind of conjoined status with real things, or beings. Numbers don’t have existence - EXCEPT as regards quantity predicated of actually existing things. They are concepts, pure and simple.
What is the point you are trying to make? Real numbers are a class of numbers. Haven’t you studied mathematics? And, none of mathematics is predicated on physics.

You have said that numbers are concepts. That is just fine, but in mathematics there are real and imaginary number concepts, and other number concepts.
 
What is the point you are trying to make? Real numbers are a class of numbers. Haven’t you studied mathematics? And, none of mathematics is predicated on physics.

You have said that numbers are concepts. That is just fine, but in mathematics there are real and imaginary number concepts, and other number concepts.
You see, that’s the problem: if one cannot make a distinction between that which is really real and that with is not really real, IOW, existing physically (or metaphysically), or not existing physically (or metaphysically), one can easily become confused. I know full well the distinction between classes of numbers, in mathematics. I know full well what “real numbers” signify. But, they are for use in mathematics only. We use them to quantify real stuff.

Although, I have seen, I think, a cartoon No. 1, with little arms and little legs, walking over cartoon ground and interacting with other cartoon exigencies, in a cartoon. Nevertheless, I HAVE BEEN ON THIS EARTH FOR A PRETTY GOOD PERIOD OF TIME AND HAVE NEVER, I REPEAT, NEVER, ACTUALLY MET A NUMBER ONE - OR, ANY NUMBER, for that matter.

Have you?

jd
 
I have not read very much William James recently. It has been a number of years for me. Can you recommend something that would be good from him. I know that I used to like him a lot.
His classic lecture on this subject is The Will to Believe. The thing that I took away from it is his description of seeking knowledge as two maxims in tension: Find the truth! and Avoid error! Most philosophical methods favor the latter, all the way to the extent of Humean quasi-skepticism and beyond – but why must this be so? Why is this considered the principled way to seek knowledge?

That’s what I like about James, anyway – those are good questions and they have pushed me into thinking that people are completely justified in looking for alternatives to strict foundationalism.
 
Although, I have seen, I think, a cartoon No. 1, with little arms and little legs, walking over cartoon ground and interacting with other cartoon exigencies, in a cartoon. Nevertheless, I HAVE BEEN ON THIS EARTH FOR A PRETTY GOOD PERIOD OF TIME AND HAVE NEVER, I REPEAT, NEVER, ACTUALLY MET A NUMBER ONE - OR, ANY NUMBER, for that matter.
I’ve never actually met anything that was contingent, either. 😃
 
That quote is from William James ca 1909.
The full context of the James quote is in “What Pragmatism Means”.
Mindful of the scholastic adage that whenever you meet a contradiction you must make a distinction, I immediately sought and found one, as follows: “Which party is right,” I said, “depends on what you practically mean by ‘going round’ the squirrel…"
OK, that’s not the full context, but I thought that was the most humorous point to end the quotation. 😃 He attributes it as a “scholastic adage” and I have no idea whether he is full of it or not. It seems to me like a very good strategy for sophists of all stripes and epochs, with somewhat less applicability in honest philosophy.
 
You have evaded the issue, rather clumsily.
The issue is finding a suitable instance of efficient cause without reference to a temporal dimension, as masterjedi747 said:
It does not show that an infinite regression temporally-sequenced efficient causes is logically impossible; and in fact it’s not logically impossible.
It seems to me that decisions happen with a temporal dimension. Maybe I don’t understand what you meant, or maybe you don’t think that they do.
 
The Aristotelian definition of motion is, that motion is not only the action that occurs between potency and act, it includes them both.
That’s why “potency-in-act” includes both potency and act, yet is a single word. I must admit I got this phrase from a Korean professor with a surfeit of education in classical languages, and don’t particularly care for it except that it is strange enough to be difficult to mistake for something else. Without the hyphens and the understanding that it is meant to be a single word, along the lines of those compound words that Germans make up for everything, it is definitely not correct.
While there may be “potency-in-act”, then, it is not the original potency. It would be a new potency, for once the potency, or lack, was filled, or fulfilled, that potency would be gone. It could no longer be potency qua potency, and there could exist no more of that potency in the fulfilled being, or thing. Once the leaf is on the ground, the potential for it fall to the ground is history. Now, someone could pick it up then drop it again, but, that would be a separate motion, another motion. Does that make sense?
Yes, and I always understood the idea of Aristotle’s motion to be that original potency becoming actual, not the realization of potency in something that is actual.
But there is a “chronology”, to use your word, in the sense that what we are defining is “motion”, not “mobile being”, at this point. We are not yet trying to define the substrate, or subject, of motion, we are trying to define “pure motion”.
I am pretty sure we are on the same page, if you mean by “chronology” that we are talking about “becoming,” rather than “essence.”

In my post I meant “chronology” in the strict sense, to distinguish “potency becoming action” from the sort of becoming that happens in the temporal universe.
No one is “reifying” the words. But, don’t try to take them away from us either.
From here, it seems that one must reify “necessary” and “contingent” in order to claim that one form of the cosmological argument has strength. As I alluded to in another post, it seems to me that the concepts of a “necessary thing” and a “contingent thing” enjoy the same ontological status as the numbers zero and one. (In fact, Dedekind’s axioms – dunno why Peano always gets the credit – for natural numbers seem to map nicely: zero being the necessary element of the semigroup, all other numbers being contingent on that number via the successor function).

And you tipped your hand – you seem to not be a mathematical realist. Why be a realist when it comes to necessity and contingency?
 
an efficient cause that is not related to motion?
I have not been following this discussion, but I am unclear about what is meant by the word “efficient”; additionally, I assume, that when asking about a cause not related to motion, the word “motion” is being used for general types of motion, wheels turning and the like–I would like to say, most everything is in motion. Somewhere out in the far reaches of this solar system, it has been put forward that a lack of motion, zero Kelvin, would be the planet Uranus–the cause of this, might be the distance from the sun, and any other star, insufficient enough as a source of heat, to reach such a planet, and without chemical properties such as what we have on earth, which tend to be less concentrated in their mass, for whatever reason; although, the planet itself is in motion, both in terms of rotation, and orbit.

It is difficult for me to think, that there is any element of the universe, without some characteristic of motion and therefore, if there is a cause without motion–such a cause has been related, or the direct cause of motion, for quite sometime, and it may no longer be said, the cause is currently unrelated to motion–God for instance.
 
I would like to add: were God to be recognized as without any relation, or cause, of motion, then God could in such a state, be recognized as something else other than “the first cause”. Potential energy as opposed to kinetic energy would be the characteristic of God, and it would be assumed, that initially, God must have been inert; though, inert in a sense of the word, apart from the day God rested, after he created chaos and order.
 
I have not been following this discussion, but I am unclear about what is meant by the word “efficient”; additionally, I assume, that when asking about a cause not related to motion, the word “motion” is being used for general types of motion, wheels turning and the like–I would like to say, most everything is in motion.
Unfortunately both “efficient cause” and “motion” are rather “technical” terms – in the sense that they don’t really mean what they seem to mean. “Efficient cause” is something like “how an object came to be” in the context of Aristotelian natural philosophy. Other causes are “material” (what it’s made of), “formal” (what it is) and “final” (what it’s for). JDaniel can surely correct my gross overgeneralization where needed. 🙂

This model of cosmology is the context in which scholastic philosophers usually formulate their proofs of the existence of God.
 
In the sense that they don’t really mean what they seem to mean. “Efficient cause” is something like “how an object came to be”
And please note that this does not necessarily entail a cause from the motion of something else. For example, a cause can simply be the necessary presence of something in relation to some other things beginning. For example nothing is not a being, so there can never be such a thing as absolute nothing. And so naturally, it follows that everything that begins to exist, does so in relation to a necessary being.
 
For example, a cause can simply be the necessary presence of something in relation to some other things beginning. For example nothing is not a being, so there can never be such a thing as absolute nothing. And so naturally, it follows that everything begins to exist in relation to a necessary being.
Or it follows that everything is “necessary” – though this does make the term rather useless.
Whatever can be spoken or thought of necessarily is, since it is possible for it to be, but it is not possible for nothing to be.

One path only is left for us to speak of: that it is. On this path there are a multitude of indications that what-is, being ungenerated, is also imperishable, whole, of a single kind, immovable and complete. Nor was it once, nor will it be, since it is, now, all together, one and continuous. For what coming-to-be of it will you seek? How and from where did it grow? I shall not permit you to say or to think that it grew from what-is-not, for it is not to be said or thought that it is not. What necessity could have impelled it to grow later rather than sooner, if it began from nothing? Thus it must either fully be, or be not at all. Nor will the force of conviction ever allow anything, from what-is, to come-to-be something apart from itself; wherefore Justice does not loosen her shackles so as to allow it to come-to-be or to perish, but holds it fast.
Parmenides of Elea.
 
Or it follows that everything is “necessary” – though this does make the term rather useless.
How does this follow to be true? If something begins, then it is not necessary by definition of its beginning.
 
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