What does it mean to abide "in Christ?"

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You still need to understand the context in which he said it. However,
Eph. 2:8-9 "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, the gift of God; NOT as a result of works, that no one should boast."
Now Paul’s statement and context is quite clear and simple. “Through faith” is stated alone.
Rom 4:5 "But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness,"
Another clear and bold statement. Faith again is stated alone - works is excluded. No my friend, it’s quite clear in the Scriptures that “by grace through faith,” “not as a result of works,” is how God saves and justifies the BELIEVER.
But you are the one misunderstanding James and giving him the wrong context.

James’s context is defined by James NOT BY PAUL
.

Have a look at your post. You are trying to contextualise James yet not a single word from his book or the chapter in question is in your post. Can’t you see how absurd that is?

Go and read James again and write your understanding of James based on James and on the Gospels.
When it comes to being born a sinner you have no free will. When it comes to dying, you have no free will.
What a sad sorry picture of humanity you paint. Use your brains here.
If we have no free will then God is an unjust God for condemning us to hell for sins we cannot help but commit. Do you see how irrational that is?
Ony if you’re under that commandment.
But you are! For THe simple reason that CHRIST DID NOT ABOLISH THE LAW, we are ALL STILL UNDER THE COMMANDMENTS.

You know what you’re problem is. You read Paul but you fail to reference his writings back to Christ. You read him isolation that is why you come up with the most absurd exegesis.
The true believer is not under law but under grace. You cannot transgress a commandment you’re not under.
Rom 4:15 “…for the Law brings about wrath, but where there is no law, there also is no violation.”
Tell me, if you commit idolatry and worshipped Baal and other gods, will God not hold you accountable for that sin?

Because as you claim you are not under the law, you can therefore commit idolatry, murder, theft, adultery and that is all okay with God?

Please answer that. Don’t evade it.
Col 2:13-14 "When you were dead in your transgressions and the uncircumcision of your flesh, He made you alive together with Him, having forgiven us all our transgressions
, having canceled out the certificate of debt consisting of decrees against us, which was hostile to us; and He has taken it out of the way, having nailed it to the cross."
1 John 3:5 "You know that He appeared in order to take away sins; and in Him there is no sin.
Quoting this does not address my point. We sin. We choose to sin. Christ came to “take away” the sins we chose to commit.
Christ came not only for the forgiveness of sins, but that they be taken away.
And the sin He takes away are the sins we commit. Otherwise there would be no sin to take away.

You do not wash a clean garment. You wash (take away the dirt) because there was dirt in the first place. That is so simple a prep-school student can grasp that.
Acts 16:30-31 "…,and after he brought them out, he said, "Sirs, what must I do to be saved?
" They said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved,”
To this you answer “Hogwash!” But the jailer believed and, to the glory of Christ, he was saved.
Honey what I said was “Hogwash” was not the verse from Acts! It is your refusal to accept culpability for your sin by denying free will. THAT is hogwash.
 
To those under the Law, the commandments condemned them judicially. That’s why the purpose of the Law was not to save, it had no power to do so. If it did Paul would have taken Judaism to the Gentiles and he wouldn’t have been persecuted by the Jewish leaders. The message of true Christianity is salvation by grace through faith. Men are in need of life, not Law. That life is in the Son, not the Law. The Son came to “take away sins” and His resurrected life is given freely to those who believe in Him. The gospel is very clear.
Can you please re-read the paragraph that you are replying to? I said “EXACTLY!!! You just debunked your own position there. If death was already there before Moses, before the Law, then how can the Law condemn us to death when as you so plainly said we WERE ALREADY DEAD BEFORE IT CAME.?”

Your reply does not answer that question. If we were already dead before the law came, how can it possibly condemn us to death?
Again, are you Jewish? Were your ancestors at Mt. Sinai? The purpose of the Law was to lead those under it to Christ that they would be "justified BY FAITH
" (Gal. 3:24). Can’t get any clearer than that, now can it?
I can’t believe I am hearing this. You think the Ten Commandments are only supposed to be followed by the Jews? You think God is excluding you from His all encompassing law to Not have God other than him, not commit adultery, not murder, etc?
I am sorry to say this but you are nuts to think that. You cannot call yourself a Christian if that is what you think!
No, that’s entirely Scriptural.
Your posts have proven that it is not!
Christ gave Paul his gospel and commissioned him to take it to the world. In unbelief you keep arguing against both of them.
No in your ignorance you keep arguing against Christ! And that is why I say you cannot call yourself a Christian. I have not seen you quote a single word of His. Furthermore, when I quote Him, you expect that Paul will debunk what He says.
Eternal life is in the Son, not Moses.
And that is true! And the Son of Man DID NOT ABOLISH THE LAW.
Rom 11:6 “But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works, otherwise grace is no longer grace.” You fail to understand the connection between grace and faith.
No, your understanding of grace, law and salvation is so terribly deficient. That is why you come up with these stupid statements.
You keep missing the point
. Salvation isn’t based on commandment keeping. Men are in need of LIFE and no law was ever given that could impart life. A Son, however, was.
Ha! Couldn’t answer that one could you? That is why you evade it.
Answer it Moondweller. If you break all the commandments, and continue to break the commandments without repenting, will you still be saved?

It is obvious that it is you who is missing the point. And not just this point either.
 
I think I’ve dealt with this verse somewhere on the thread, but basically, because it’s not His purpose to save all men.
You disbelieve the Scripture: God “desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth and Jesus died as a ransom for all men.” (1 Timothy 2:3-6)
Paul doesn’t phrase it as a conditional “if.” You better read it again, and this time, read the larger context.
Galatians 5:19-21 “Now the works of the flesh are evident, which are: adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lewdness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, hatred, contentions, jealousies, outbursts of wrath, selfish ambitions, dissensions, heresies, 21 envy, murders, drunkenness, revelries, and the like; of which** I tell you beforehand, just as I also told you in time past, that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.**”

Hebrews 10:26-27 “For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries.”

Romans 11:22-23 “Therefore consider the goodness and severity of God: on those who fell, severity; but toward you, goodness, if you continue in His goodness. Otherwise you also will be cut off. 23 And they also, if they do not continue in unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.”

Colossians 1:21-23 “And you, who once were alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now He has reconciled 22 in the body of His flesh through death, to present you holy, and blameless, and above reproach in His sight— 23 if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven, of which I, Paul, became a minister.”

Continued Justification is conditional after our initial justification received at Baptism.
Now “keeping the commandments” is “obeying the gospel.” You equivocate a great deal.
Since the gospel of Jesus (which includes all of the NT teachings, both oral and written: 2 Thessalonians 2:15) **contains the commandments of Jesus, then ** persons, except for those who cannot reason, would figure out that “keeping the commandments” is part of the "gospel of Jesus Christ."

2 Thessalonians 1:7-9 "when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels, 8 in flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God, and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ. 9 These shall be punished with everlasting destruction "

1 Thessalonians 3:5 "For this reason, when I could no longer endure it, I sent to know your faith, lest by some means the tempter had tempted you, and our labor might be in vain. (unsuccessful, futile)

Sin mortal sins after justification and you lose your justification.

Pax,
SHW
 
Both of us know the righteousness of God is perfect (Deut 32:4).
Then why do you also believe that you must perfect it? When one believes in Christ (His Person and sacrificial work on his behalf) God Himself, apart from works, justifies Him. He is reckoned the “righteousness of God.”
Both of us know that righteousness is a gift (Rom 5:17).
Yes, it is part of the “abundance of grace” the believer receives. And the one who believes, as the verse states, “will reign in LIFE through the One, Jesus Christ.” That’s because the believer is, at the time of belief, “sanctified in Christ.” That is, in the resurrected Christ:1 Cor 1:2 “To the church of God which is at Corinth, to those who have been sanctified in Christ Jesus, saints by calling, with all who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, their {Lord} and ours:”

1 Cor 1:30 “But by His doing you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption” (three different words, three different aspects of one salvation).

Heb 10:14 “For by one offering He has perfected for all time those who are sanctified.”
What we have is a fundamental difference in our understanding of justification and sanctification and their relationship. We are using the same terms but applying different meaning to them.
Your error is that you’re applying the same meaning to both. They’re two entirely different aspects of one salvation.
I don’t even know where to start?
Start by accepting the fact that they’re different. And that the gift of justification, based on the redemption which is in Christ Jesus (Rom. 3:24), not our works, is, as the Scriptures say, the gift of the “righteousness of God.”

IOW, begin with what the Scriptures teach, not men.
 
In order for me to make sense of that verse with your soteriology, that verse should include a caveat. Shouldn’t it say, “new things have come permanently for some, but for others, because of their disobedience, those new things will be pass away as well?”
This verse does not stand alone. There are plenty other of verses that make your point.

Working together, then, we appeal to you not to receive the grace of God in vain. (2 Cor 6:1)

At a time when you did not know God, you became slaves to things that by nature are not gods; but now that you have come to know God, or rather to be known by God, how can you turn back again to the weak and destitute elemental powers? Do you want to be slaves to them all over again? You are observing days, months, seasons, and years. I am afraid on your account that perhaps I have labored for you in vain. (Gal 4:8-11)

God clearly states that what He did with Pharaoh "was MY purpose."
IOW, it’s not the case that Pharaoh was in the wrong place at the wrong time. Rather, God “raised him up,” to destroy him. Based on statements in scripture, regarding God’s purposes, that purpose was purposed in eternity. God brought Pharaoh into the world, nurtured him for his whole life, protected him from diseases which could have killed him, brought him to that exact moment in history, and destroyed him.
God did that for the purpose of proclaiming his power over the things of the earth, including men in the earth, and the gods they worshipped. And it worked. Israel’s enemies were afraid of Israel because the news of Pharaoh’s demise at the hands of the God of Israel was widespread.
Do you think God did the same with the Jews in Rom 9, 10, 11? How about Adam and Eve?

None of these examples have anything to do with your idea of “predestination”. God does not created us just to destroy us. Yes, God uses people for His own purposes, whether they are noble or ignoble, but God alway gives them the choice to obey.

If Adam weren’t free, he would have already been “predestined” to disobey the divine command, any warning from God would have been irrelevant. God does not issue meaningless warnings. And Christ would not have had to redeem us by the blood of His cross if we weren’t free, because God would not have been angered by our sins (which is the reason Christ had to suffer; to appease the Father). Instead, we would have already been excused by our lack of freedom, since sin no longer would have been a choice.
But that doesn’t answer my question which was asked in response to this statement by you:Here again is the question I asked, using the second verse that I posted:
How do you square your statement (God gives all men sufficient grace to be saved. This is true because God antecedently wills all to be saved, meaning that all have the possibility of salvation.) with this statement by Peter:
1 Pet 2:8
“…A stone of stumbling and a rock of offense”; for they stumble because they are disobedient to the word, and to this they were also appointed.
God grants man grace which moves man’s will toward the good (Including Adam, Pharoh, and the Jews in Romans 9, 10, 11). This is “operating grace.” At this point, man can resist or not resist the grace. If man does not resist the grace, it is the grace that is allowing his nonresistance and cooperation. When man habitually resists God’s grace (disobedient) so that He places himself in opposition to God, God withdraws His grace and allows the person to fall away (they are appointed).
I don’t see that answering the question I asked, however, ISTM you’re contradicting yourself.
In your last post to me you said:
You make that statement, and then talk about “operating and cooperating grace.” Are you saying there’s no equality with God concerning salvation? If not, what is it you’re saying?

I am saying that there is equality in the possibility of salvation (sufficient grace), because God wills all to be saved. Concerning actual salvation (efficacious grace) there is no equality, because God wills some to be damned as a punishment for their rejection of grace, as His justice exacts.

In other words, God gives every one graces. If they resist the grace God allows them to resist and He does not send them extraordinary graces to break the resistance.
I don’t need to predict the future, Ryan, I know the past. Justification is an event that is spoken of in the Gr aorist tense—an action, completed in the past. I believed, and when I believed, I was justified, and that justification is sure; it’s the mingling of justification and sanctification that leads to the belief that justification can be lost; that belief comes about by inferences taken from scripture, that are processed in light of the synonymous understanding of justification and sanctification.
Again, my sanctification can falter, but my justification is sure.
That doesn’t make sense to me. Are you saying that every person who ever “believed” is justified and is assured salvation?

What if you end up in this group?

They went out from us, but they were not really of our number; if they had been, they would have remained with us. Their desertion shows that none of them was of our number. (1 John 2:19)

In light of Christ saying that we must “endure to the end to be saved,” can you explain how you know that you are saved?​
 
Hi Ryan,

We all (Catholics and Protestants) agree that our justification is given to us by a free gift of grace through faith. Jesus saves us. We did no works in order to merit (earn) this free gift.

To Catholics, this means that we believe that Jesus will redeem us and save us and justify us and so we are baptized in obedience to this belief in order to actually receive this redemption/salvation/justification. (Acts 10:48, Matthew 28:19) Catholics believe that Baptism is their initial justification.
Thanks,

I agree with your entire post.
 
Then why do you also believe that you must perfect it?
I don’t. God does.
Start by accepting the fact that they’re different. And that the gift of justification, based on the redemption which is in Christ Jesus (Rom. 3:24), not our works, is, as the Scriptures say, the gift of the “righteousness of God.”
I know they are different, but they are tied together more than you say. I believe in initial justification (which you are describing).
Your error is that you’re applying the same meaning to both. They’re two entirely different aspects of one salvation.
There is a real change that occurs in justification that is not just a change in legal status.

For he who has died is freed from sin (Rom 6:7)

The context here is being made holy, Yet in the Greek text, what he actually says is: He who has died has been justified from sin. (dikaoo) is the word for being justified, yet the context indicates sanctification, which is why it is translated as freed. This shows that justification involves a real transformation and not just a change in legal status. There is not the rigid wall between justification and sanctification that you imagine.
 
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SHW:
You disbelieve the Scripture: God “desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth and Jesus died as a ransom for all men.” (1 Timothy 2:3-6)
C’mon, it’s your opinion of what scripture says that I disagree with. Come to think of it, all you do is make a statement and cite a verse out of context, or you cite a verse out of context and make a statement without any explanation as to why that verse supports what you say.

Looking at the verse you cite above, you’re presenting God’s “desire” that all men to be saved, as God’s purpose to save all men. God says He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Eze 33:11), and that’s consistent with His desire that all men would believe, but that doesn’t mean that God has willed all men to be saved. If He were to have willed that, then I have no doubt that all men would be saved.
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SHW:
Galatians 5:19-21 “Now the works of the flesh are evident, which are: adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lewdness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, hatred, contentions, jealousies, outbursts of wrath, selfish ambitions, dissensions, heresies, 21 envy, murders, drunkenness, revelries, and the like; of which I tell you beforehand, just as I also told you in time past, that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.”

Hebrews 10:26-27 “For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries.”

Romans 11:22-23 “Therefore consider the goodness and severity of God: on those who fell, severity; but toward you, goodness, if you continue in His goodness. Otherwise you also will be cut off. 23 And they also, if they do not continue in unbelief, will be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.”

Colossians 1:21-23 “And you, who once were alienated and enemies in your mind by wicked works, yet now He has reconciled 22 in the body of His flesh through death, to present you holy, and blameless, and above reproach in His sight— 23 if indeed you continue in the faith, grounded and steadfast, and are not moved away from the hope of the gospel which you heard, which was preached to every creature under heaven, of which I, Paul, became a minister.”

Continued Justification is conditional after our initial justification received at Baptism.
Again, no reason why these verses support your position, but only the assertion of your position at the end of citing them.
 
Looking at the verse you cite above, you’re presenting God’s “desire” that all men to be saved, as God’s purpose to save all men. God says He takes no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Eze 33:11), and that’s consistent with His desire that all men would believe, but that doesn’t mean that God has willed all men to be saved. If He were to have willed that, then I have no doubt that all men would be saved.
No, I am saying that God desires that all men be saved just as the Scripture states. Why aren’t all men saved? They are not saved because they use their own free wills to thwart God’s desire for them to be saved.

If you think that they can thwart His plan and never become saved in the first place, then I agree with you; but if you also think that when they do decide to become saved and they actually become saved, that they can never become “unsaved,” then I believe Scripture proves your position incorrect.

Galatians 5:19-21 “Now the works of the flesh are evident, which are: adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lewdness, 20 idolatry, sorcery, hatred, contentions, jealousies, outbursts of wrath, selfish ambitions, dissensions, heresies, 21 envy, murders, drunkenness, revelries, and the like; of which I tell you beforehand, just as I also told you in time past, that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.”

Paul is speaking in this Scripture passage to BELIEVERS only. He is not speaking to those persons who are not already justified. All of these hearers of His words are already saved. Paul is telling his flock that persons who do these things will not inherit the kingdom of God. He is warning them to not do these things because if they do, then they will no longer be eligible to inherit the kingdom of God. They will have forfeited their inheritance.

If you are one of "those who practice such things" then you will not inherit the kingdom of God. This is plain teaching. There is no way to misinterpret what Paul is telling His flock unless you willfully refuse to believe it because of personal obstinacy or else you unfortunately have the inability to reason and comprehend.

Pax,
SHW
 
Only those persons who obeyed God’s commandments while they were on earth are actually saved on Judgment Day:

John 15:14 "You are My friends if you do whatever I command you.

Luke 10:16 “He who hears you (Catholic Church) hears Me, he who rejects you rejects Me, and he who rejects Me rejects Him who sent Me.”

Acts 10:48 “And he (Peter) commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then they asked him to stay a few days.”

1 Corinthians 7:19 “Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing, but keeping the commandments of God is what matters.”

1 Corinthians 14:37 “If anyone thinks himself to be a prophet or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things which I write to you are the commandments of the Lord.”

1 Thessalonians 4:1-8 “Finally then, brethren, we urge and exhort in the Lord Jesus that you should abound more and more, just as you received from us how you ought to walk and to please God; 2 for you know what commandments we gave you through the Lord Jesus.
3 For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from sexual immorality; 4 that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, 5 not in passion of lust, like the Gentiles who do not know God; 6 that no one should take advantage of and defraud his brother in this matter, because the Lord is the avenger of all such, as we also forewarned you and testified. 7 For God did not call us to uncleanness, but in holiness. 8 Therefore he who rejects this does not reject man, but God, who has also given us His Holy Spirit.

Hebrews 5:8-9 " though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He suffered. 9 And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him

2 Thessalonians 1:8-9 “when the Lord Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels, 8 in flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God, and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ. 9 These shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord”

The “gospel of Jesus” is all of the teachings and commandments of the NT and also those oral teachings of the Apostles:

2 Thessalonians 2:15 “Therefore, brethren, stand fast and hold the traditions which you were taught, whether by word or our epistle.”

2 Peter 2:21 “For it would have been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than having known it, to turn from the holy commandment delivered to them.”

Pax,
SHW
 
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SHW:
Paul is speaking in this Scripture passage to BELIEVERS only. He is not speaking to those persons who are not already justified.
That’s an elementary mistake you’re making, SHW; prove it.
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SHW:
All of these hearers of His words are already saved
Proof?
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SHW:
Paul is telling his flock that persons who do these things will not inherit the kingdom of God. He is warning them to not do these things because if they do, then they will no longer be eligible to inherit the kingdom of God. They will have forfeited their inheritance.
You have yet to prove that salvation can be forfeited to my satisfaction. 🤷

SHW said:
If you are one of “those who practice such things” then you will not inherit the kingdom of God. This is plain teaching. There is no way to misinterpret what Paul is telling His flock unless you willfully refuse to believe it because of personal obstinacy or else you unfortunately have the inability to reason and comprehend.

Again, it’s not a conditional statement. Also, it’s a plural, and not a singular. This is easily determined in the English by the use of the pronoun “those.”

Futhermore, the verb is a present, participle. So carrying that knowledge into the translation, it says, the ones who are continually doing these things, etc.

IOW, those acts, or acts like them, are the continual pattern of their daily life.

And what do you think is the prevalent sin of the Galatians in that lot of sin mentioned?
 
That’s an elementary mistake you’re making, SHW; prove it.
Galatians 6:1-7 "Brethren, if a man is overtaken in any trespass, you who are spiritual restore such a one in a spirit of gentleness, considering yourself lest you also be tempted. 2 Bear one another’s burdens, and so fulfill the law of Christ. 3 For if anyone thinks himself to be something, when he is nothing, he deceives himself. 4 But let each one examine his own work, and then he will have rejoicing in himself alone, and not in another. 5 For each one shall bear his own load. 6 Let him who is taught the word share in all good things with him who teaches. 7** Do not be deceived, God is not mocked; for whatever a** man sows, that he will also reap. 8 For he who sows to his flesh will of the flesh reap corruption, but he who sows to the Spirit will of the Spirit reap everlasting life. 9 And let us not grow weary while doing good, for in due season we shall reap if we do not lose heart. 10 Therefore, as we have opportunity, let us do good to all, especially to those who are of the household of faith.

Luke 8:13 “But the ones on the rock are those who, when they hear, receive the word with joy; and these have no root, who believe for a while and in time of temptation fall away.”

2 Peter 3:15-17 "our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, has written to you, 16 as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand,** which untaught** and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures.
17 You therefore, beloved, since you know this beforehand, beware lest you also fall from your own steadfastness, being led away with the error of the wicked;

Pax,
SHW
 
That’s the perfect description of benedictus2’s unorthodox statements: the cart’s before the horse. 🤷
No, the reference is to Howie01’s incorrect understanding of benedictus2’s statements.
 
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SHW:
Paul is speaking in this Scripture passage to BELIEVERS only. He is not speaking to those persons who are not already justified.
How do you know that?

SHW said:
All of these hearers of His words are already saved

Proof?
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SHW:
Paul is telling his flock that persons who do these things will not inherit the kingdom of God. He is warning them to not do these things because if they do, then they will no longer be eligible to inherit the kingdom of God. They will have forfeited their inheritance.
You have yet to prove that salvation can be forfeited to my satisfaction. 🤷

SHW said:
If you are one of “those who practice such things” then you will not inherit the kingdom of God. This is plain teaching. There is no way to misinterpret what Paul is telling His flock unless you willfully refuse to believe it because of personal obstinacy or else you unfortunately have the inability to reason and comprehend.

Again, it’s not a conditional SHW, and you’re still not providing any context with the verse, and as the saying goes, a text without a context is a pretext for a proof text. 🤷

Also, it’s a plural, and not a singular, and, the verb is a present, participle. So the proper translation is, the ones who are continually doing these things; it’s the pattern of their daily lives. Think about it. 🤷

And again, without providing the context, which you haven’t done, what you say is nothing more than a pretext.
 
So far, benedictus2 has not made any comment on my understanding, one way or 'tother. 🤷
Just noticed this comment of yours now. I did not realize you have responded to any of my posts. I will go back through the thread tonight and post a reply. Sorry about that.

BTW if you should read this in the meantime, can you let me know which post you are referrring to.
 
Just noticed this comment of yours now. I did not realize you have responded to any of my posts. I will go back through the thread tonight and post a reply. Sorry about that.

BTW if you should read this in the meantime, can you let me know which post you are referrring to.
There’s a lot of posts, no rush. 223 and 224.
 
How do you know that?

Also, it’s a plural, and not a singular, and, the verb is a present, participle. So the proper translation is, the ones who are continually doing these things; it’s the pattern of their daily lives. Think about it.
1 John 3:4 “Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness.”

Matthew 7:23 “And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness!’”

Matthew 13:39-42 “The enemy who sowed them is the devil, the harvest is the end of the age, and the reapers are the angels. 40 Therefore as the tares are gathered and burned in the fire, so it will be at the end of this age. 41 The Son of Man will send out His angels, and they will gather out of His kingdom all things that offend, and those who practice lawlessness, 42 and will cast them into the furnace of fire. There will be wailing and gnashing of teeth.”

Matthew 24:11-13 "Then many false prophets will rise up and deceive many. 12 And because lawlessness will abound, the love of many will grow cold. 13 But he who endures to the end shall be saved."

Romans 6:19 “I speak in human terms because of the weakness of your flesh. For just as you presented your members as slaves of uncleanness, and of lawlessness leading to more lawlessness, so now present your members as slaves of righteousness for holiness.”

Looks like it only takes one sin (not sins**)** to me. 🙂

Pax,
SHW
 
1 John 3:4 “Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness.”

Looks like it only takes one sin (not sins****) to me. 🙂

Pax,
SHW
You’re unbelievable my friend. I’ve never come across anyone who exhibits as much ease in being wrong as you do; it’s effortless for you, IMO.

Once again, the verb commits, is a present, participle. Whoever is continuously committing sin, is also continually committing lawlessness; therefore, it’s not one sin, but a life marked by a continuous, daily pattern of sin that never stops. :hmmm:

You’ll find that in every case. It’s easy to understand why God had the NT written in Greek. It’s tensing is precise.

Also, you haven’t answered my question to you in my last post concerning how you know that there are only believers in the Galatian church, and, you haven’t provided a context for either the last post, or this one for that matter. 🤷
 
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