S
Sarpedon
Guest
I frequently hear people say that the EF is superior because it is more “explicitly” Catholic, i.e. the prayers reference more Catholic doctrine and belief than the prayers of the OF.
What if a new liturgy were to be introduced that was even more explicitly and unambiguosly Catholic than the EF? Suppose that the prayers were intentionally written to contain more doctrine than those of the EF, perhaps including references to more recent declarations of dogma (Immaculate Conception and Assumption)? Would this be opposed?
What if a new liturgy were to be introduced that was even more explicitly and unambiguosly Catholic than the EF? Suppose that the prayers were intentionally written to contain more doctrine than those of the EF, perhaps including references to more recent declarations of dogma (Immaculate Conception and Assumption)? Would this be opposed?