It is my understanding that in order for baptism to be valid in the RCC, there must be proper intent to “do what the Church does.” What exactly does this mean?
Baptism, one of the Seven Sacraments of the Christian Church, frequently called the “first sacrament”, the “door of the sacraments”, and the “door of the Church”.
Form - “I baptize thee” in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost (Spirit)."
Intention - Is to will to do what the Church does when she baptizes. Which is…The Church finds the reason for this possibility in the universal saving will of God and
the necessity of baptism for salvation. (CCC 1256)
Why is Mormon baptismal intent rejected over, say, a KJV only fundamentalist free grace landmarkist Baptist who, unlike Mormons, do not see baptism as sacramental?
The main reason is because Mormons believe that God is only one of many gods who were once men. So even though they use the phrase “the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit,” in their usage this phrase takes on a meaning that is actually polytheistic and pagan rather than trinitarian.
Mormons do accept baptism as sacramental for forgiveness of sins, yet Baptist don’t. Shouldn’t then Mormons be considered to have the same intent as the Catholic Church?
Yes Catholics believe that baptism forgives sins, however this is not the “INTENT” that is being spoken of. Therefore, from my understanding, even if a fundamentalist doesn’t believe baptism forgives sins, as long as they use the proper form saying “the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit,” and they intend to use it because Jesus says it is necessary for salvation, then it is valid. Whether or not they believe it forgives sins is not what the Church means by intention.
Hope this helps,
God Bless