M
MarcoPolo
Guest
Often Tradition will be an understanding of Scripture, such as how John 3:5 is a reference to Baptism. Although I know of no “rule” that Tradition has to be an interpretation of Scripture, particularly because Tradition is antecedent to NT Scripture, historically speaking. After all, the first texts of the NT were written some 10-15 or perhaps more years after Christ’s Ascension. And the NT canon itself was discerned over a few hundred years after that too. Yet the heritage of the faith was handed down prior to all this.So essentially, Scripture, which is founded on Christ and the Apostle’s words and teachings, is sort of the bedrock of Christian Tradition, and anything after that - which is not Scripture, but Tradition - is elucidation on Scripture?
An example I can think of that does not have an “explicit” Scriptural reference is infant baptism. *The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to infants. The apostles, to whom were committed the secrets of the divine sacraments, knew there are in everyone innate strains of [original] sin, which must be washed away through water and the Spirit." (Origen, Commentaries on Romans 5:9, ca 248 A.D.) *But don’t get me wrong, I think theological principles in Scripture very much support the notion of infant baptism, going all the way back to the Old Testament baptismal prefigurement of circumcision at 8 days old. Nor were infants said to be forbidden from participating in other baptismal prefigurements, such as the crossing of the Red Sea, or getting on the Ark, etc…