Where does Islam’s perspective concerning the inaccuracy and corruption of the Hebrew Bible (particularly the Torah) and the Gospels come from? Is it stated by Muhammad and others in the Qur’an or perhaps in the ahadith? And, if so stated, what is the basis of this belief: prophetic revelation, historical evidence, or some other factor?
this verse is talking about jews
Know they not Allah Knoweth what they conceal and what they reveal? And there are among them illiterates, who know not the Book, but (see therein their own) desires, and they do nothing but conjecture. Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: ‘This is from Allah,’ To traffic with it for a miserable price! Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby. (The Noble Quran, 2:77-79)"
this verse from the bible
“How can you say we (the Jews) are wise and the law of the Lord is with us, when in fact the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie? (Jeremiah 8:8 (Revised Standard Version))”
historic evidences
Once mankind began to study the Old Testament in detail, comparing the various passages which referred to the same topic in order to obtain as much detail as possible, they began to notice conflicting accounts of many matters as well as other problems. For instance, in the eleventh century, it was noticed that the list of Edomite kings in Genesis 36 names kings who lived long after Moses was dead Then people began to notice such statements as “to this day” something is true, which implies that the author was looking back at these matters through history and has seen that they have endured.
After this, it was noticed that in the beginning verses of the OT manuscripts, Deuteronomy says: “These are the words that Moses spoke to the children of Israel across the Jordan…” They noticed that the words “across the Jordan” refers to people who are on the opposite side of the Jordan river to the author. But the alleged author, Moses himself, was never supposed to have been in Israel in his life.
It was also noticed that Moses speaks in detail in Deuteronomy 34:5-10 about how he died and where he was buried.
In the beginning, it was claimed that Moses wrote the Pentateuch (Five “books of Moses”) and anyone contesting this fact would be severely punished or worse. However, when these matters started to become well known, it became necessary to find explanations. For example, the first explanation presented for the verses referring to the death of Moses was that Moses had written his books, but that later prophets, as well as “inspired” scribes (who could also be considered prophets), had later on added on a couple of lines here and there. In this manner the text remained 100% the “inspiration” of God. This explanation, however, did not stand up to scrutiny because the style and literary characteristics of the verses are the same throughout. For instance, the verses which describe the death and burial of Moses exhibit the same literary characteristics as the verses before and after them.
we recognizes the OT as a HISTORY BOOK with errors and man’s alteration in it.
as for answering your question about massaih according to islam or according arabic meaning for the word massiah
in islam Jesus Christ is called Al-Masseeh المسيح which means** the-wiper or the-Rubber **as he used to wipe on the eye of the blind to recover their eyesight and also used to wipe on those infected with leprosy to cure them. ( we believe that it was one of his miracles )