Uh, where was this document referenced?
Adrian IV during his reign issued a papal bull, Laudabiliter, granting dominion over Ireland to the English monarch, Henry II. The bull made Ireland a feudal possession of the King of England under the nominal overlordship of the papacy. The title the English King was to hold over Ireland was “Lord of Ireland”. The pope claimed the right to grant sovereignty over islands in Europe to different monarchs because of a forged document called the Donation of Constantine. The theory of western Christendom was that certain states were recognised and others were not; Laudabiliter formally brought Ireland as a political entity into the European polity.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadrian_IV
And I ask again: What makes whatever the Pope says law?
I’ve already answered this, I don’t believe what he says is law, but a Catholic would have a different persepective, espcially in the Middle Ages
How did the Pope continue to assert legal authority over the later conquests (separate, ie, reinvasions) under the Protestant kings?
He didn’t. The point is, by then Ireland was already English
I think perhaps your hazy details on the history are confusing your vision.
No, you simply want to argue against points not made, and to challenge on points already met.
Here it is again, in s-l-o-w motion
Hadrian was the Pope. All of the west AT THAT TIME was Catholic. They all recognised his authority to make Papal Bulls.
He gave one granting to the Norman-English the right to take Ireland. England was Catholic. Ireland was Catholic.
England took Ireland. It became ‘English’ (land). Many centuries later the English monarch and peoples converted to Protestantism. They thus had one nation with several parts still Catholic. They planted Protestant settlers in northern Ireland. It was still "English’ (land) so they had the legal right to do so.
Another person was raised in this topic as if it were an issue; Cromwell.
Cromwell himself usurped authority from the English Crown. He then conquered England (much of it Protestant), Scotland (some of it Protestant), Wales, (Catholic) and Ireland (Catholic)
The Irish who rebelled weren’t ‘independents’ but pro-monarchy, which was Protestant (Charles I who was excecuted is considered and “Anglican Martyr”)
Cromwell was succeeded eventually by a restored monarch, who was Protestant… Charles II.
Ireland STILL continued to be under his authority. Such was their loyalty to the crown that they fought for his brother James II and lost. James II was Catholic, but he wasn’t Irish. AND it was his family that had firmly established the Plantations
The monarchy under William IV became permenently Protestant.
There then arose an Irish ‘nationalism’. No one denies their right to fight for their own nation. But it is patently false the objection put to me, and it’s absolutely hillarious that you would then champion it after the facts have been stated!
Perhaps another break for you?