One of the quotes listed earlier was from 1527, a while after his excommunication, so it isn’t a matter of him adhering to Catholic teaching simply because he was Catholic.
How Luther’s views of the marian doctrines changed over the years is subject to debate, and my experience is that each side tends to portray his mariology to support their side. ISTM, however, that his main view of the IC and the Assumption (I don’t think there’s any question about sempre virgo - he believed it), the scriptures are not explicit in a way that one should make it an article of faith, but Christians were free to believe them or not. My belief as a Lutheran is that, at least from the Visitation forward, and based on the greeting by the Angel, she was free from sin, original and personal, though I would not discount the possiblity of the IC.
The fact that the Blessed Virgin declares her need of a savior isn’t a distinction, IMO, as even if she was immaculately conceived, her sinlessness was by grace, and not by something of her own nature. Therefore, she knew she was in need of a savior.
I think it is safe to say that the disagreement Lutherans have with the CC on this is two-fold, the one I mentioned above regarding the relative silence of scripture, and the fact that the councils used to define them were not truly ecumenical, but I would not say that the devotion for her today in the CC is “strikingly different” than that of scripture or the historic Church, east and west.
Jon
You know what Jon, I like your thinking, and its not different in this regard than many Catholics. History, scripture and the early church fathers give us all this information, we just need to read it, though reading and accepting are different beasts. Nonetheless…
“The fact that the Blessed Virgin declares her need of a savior isn’t a distinction, IMO, as even if she was immaculately conceived, her sinlessness was by grace, and not by something of her own nature. Therefore, she knew she was in need of a savior.”
This is very in-line with Duns Scotus…as he stated “Its Possible for God”…
1] To preserve Mary from original sin.
2] To preserve Her within an instant of Conception {also taught by Aquinas}
3] Or to purify her at ‘some period’ in time before the conception of Jesus.
Which was done? If it does not contradict scripture or the authority of the Church, its better to err on the side of superabundance that to err on the side of inadequacy by reducing Marys excellence. Since not only was She “Full of Grace”, Mary continue’s to receive Grace through time from God. Never has this mystery stopped. {Nor has it since}
Mary needed Christ as the redeemer more than anyone did, not on the account of the sin that was present in Her, but on account of the Sin that would have been present, if Her Son had not been preserved through Faith. Mary was Immaculately Conceived because what Nature had not given Her, the Grace of God had accomplished in Her. It was by Marys case alone that this method of redemption by preservation was judged the “Most Fitting” and therfore Her restoration was not an act of supplying what had been lost, but an act of increasing what Mary already has…Grace, she is Full of Grace. In Marys case this absence of original sin is a privilege.
Anyway, nice post Jon and I believe you are absolutely right with you take on Luther also.
God Bless, Gary