Thomas Aquinas comes up often as of lately in regards to the Immaculate Conception. Basically their is an overlap it time with Aquina’s and the Council of Basil. Aquinas died in 1274, the IC was approved at Basil in 1431. For this to have happened it would have to have been constantly promoted by Christians of this period, yet not approved as the “Dogma of the Faith”. From this perspective one can more accurately see St Thomas Aquina’s dilemma and his position and official stance. By Martin Luthers time his stance is also obvious. My point is only that current-day Lutherans and Protestants in general emphasize Mariology far less than the “Protestant Reformers” did (Luther, pehaps the most overlooked) You see ths issue? Uphold what Thomas Aquina’s never said, but ignore Luther?
Here’s a link for Thomas Aquinas.
search.yahoo.com/r/_ylt=A0oG7mLngBlOfRMAsnhXNyoA;_ylu=X3oDMTE1N2hhc2k2BHNlYwNzcgRwb3MDMQRjb2xvA2FjMgR2dGlkA1ZJUDA3OV8xNDc-/SIG=11p0fbpdi/EXP=1310315847/**http%3a//www.the-pope.com/stThomas.html
Anyway, let me further help you in this topic research. As to the link and its referrence…
… here is what Aquinas did say (Summa Theologiae III:27:4):
"I answer that, God so prepares and endows those, whom He chooses for some particular office, that they are rendered capable of fulfilling it, according to 2 Cor. 3:6: ‘(Who) hath made us fit ministers of the New Testament.’ Now the Blessed Virgin was chosen by God to be His Mother. Therefore there can be no doubt that God, by His grace, made her worthy of that office, according to the words spoken to her by the angel (Lk. 1:30,31): ‘Thou hast found grace with God: behold thou shalt conceive,’ etc. But she would not have been worthy to be the Mother of God, if she had ever sinned. First, because the honor of the parents reflects on the child, according to Prov. 17:6: ‘The glory of children are their fathers’: and consequently, on the other hand, the Mother’s shame would have reflected on her Son. Secondly, because of the singular affinity between her and Christ, who took flesh from her: and it is written (2 Cor. 6:15): ‘What concord hath Christ with Belial?’ Thirdly, because of the singular manner in which the Son of God, who is the ‘Divine Wisdom’ (1 Cor. 1:24) dwelt in her, not only in her soul but in her womb. And it is written (Wis. 1:4): ‘Wisdom will not enter into a malicious soul, nor dwell in a body subject to sins.’
"We must therefore confess simply that the Blessed Virgin committed no actual sin, neither mortal nor venial; so that what is written (Cant 4:7) is fulfilled: ‘Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee,’ etc. "
What we “can’t assume” is what Aquina’s did not say, and this in fact becomes the basis of this arguement from what I see. Aquinas “never” endorsed the idea that Mary was sinful. He absolutely never did this
Its safe to assume Thomas Aquina’s was in fact still working this theory out and would in fact provide the later ground-work for the theory. Now in seeing this, one begins to see just how old in fact the Immaculate Conception is. BTW as far the Assumption? You will note; Thomas Aquina’s comments on Marys “redemption”? That I believe relates to the Assumption also.
As someone correctly stated a few posts back…None of this is new in regards to Mary. The contemplation of Mary has been in existance as stated above for 1900 years now. And can be tracked much deeper than this period we are talking here. Well Martin Luther himself should give you a time window in the IC, its no surprize in regards to Luthers stance. What Happened in Mexico in the 15th with Consecration and Converstion alone is amazing…9-Million don’t convert in 10 years for NO REASON. Obviously something profound happened there. How else can Mexico be explained but through Mary?
God Bless, Gary