K
KathleenGee
Guest
Unfortunately, the Catholic Church does not control the world money system.
Neither does it control the legalization of abortion, but she does not fail to speak out on this moral issue. There is no reason why the Catholic church could not encourage a year of jubilee, especially in the countries that have a majority Catholic population.Unfortunately, the Catholic Church does not control the world money system.
Jesus did not say anything about money. I really don’t agree that what you have presented is usury. Perhaps you can present evidence of what you think the Church teaches.I do not claim to refute you. I do think that collecting interest on non-productive loans that individuals take out for medical services, housing and transportation to work are usury under the definition of the Catholic church.
Even the Jewish people were commanded to cancel all debts of their debtors after 50 years. The teachings of Jesus Christ are more perfect than the OT. So what does that say about lending without receiving back, let alone the definition of usury or interest?
When the understanding (and reality) of money as a largely inert, non-productive thing changed as a result of economic changes in European society, the principle that interest taken on money was per se inordinate, was abandoned as well.
USURYTaking of excessive interest for the loan of money is the modern understanding of usury. .
My comments on interest or usury on non-productive loans such as for medical services, housing, or transportation to work were taken from one of your previous posts:Jesus did not say anything about money. I really don’t agree that what you have presented is usury. Perhaps you can present evidence of what you think the Church teaches.
Yes I thought that might be the case but you can’t just take part of what I said. The article I quoted also saidMy comments on interest or usury on non-productive loans such as for medical services, housing, or transportation to work were taken from one of your previous posts:
"Usury involves interest taken on a non-productive loan. (Example: a loan to a friend so he can have an operation.) Since medievals believed money as such to be non-productive and sterile (which in fact it generally was in the Middle Ages), they thought any interest taken immoral. (It’s still immoral to take interest on a non-productive loan, since such a loan violates the virtue of charity.) Only things which were productive could be loaned out with the expectation of compensation for the loss of productivity. For example, it would not have been usurious for a medieval farmer to loan out his cow and expect compensation for the milk lost during the time of the loan. "
The concept of money has changed. Money today is a commodity in itself which was not the case in the Middle Ages. In the second example of the farmer loaning out his cow is comparative to the bank loaning out money. My mother in law loaned us money to buy a house. This was money that would earn her interest in the bank. It was not just to take the money and repay only the loan amount because that would not repay her for what she would loose. Just like it wouldn’t be just for the farmer not to be compensated for his milk. Note that it is talking about medieval times. The use of money has changed.When the understanding (and reality) of money as a largely inert, non-productive thing changed as a result of economic changes in European society, the principle that interest taken on money was per se inordinate, was abandoned as well.
So then does Thomas Aquinas burn in the fires of hell for his rejection of the Immaculate Conception? It’s an unnecessary development of doctrine—a theologoumenon at best—and elevating it to the level of a dogma, such that rejecting it condemns one to hell, is downright irresponsible.And I love you Mickey but how could Christ be without original sin if original sin is inherited from the Mother?
And it IS necessary to believe that the Blessed Mother was saved from Original sin. It really is. It is more important then you can ever know.
I am going to bed right now, had a long day, but do me a favor my friend. PLEASE pray to God tonight and ask him to give you the grace to see how Important this really is.
You do not understand what you are saying. IF the Blessed Mother had original sin and she could not be saved from it by GodDo you see the insanity of this statement you are making?
How could God saving Mary free from O.S. at the moment of her conception take away her free will here on earthYes, but Mary couldn’t say no to the IC. That’s what I’m saying, the fact that God made her special from conception obliterates part of her free will.
Why he never said she sinned, Here is what he said.So then does Thomas Aquinas burn in the fires of hell for his rejection of the Immaculate Conception? It’s an unnecessary development of doctrine—a theologoumenon at best—and elevating it to the level of a dogma, such that rejecting it condemns one to hell, is downright irresponsible.
Sure, the Immaculate Conception is possible, since with God’s will, anything is possible, but then to turn around and say that God must have done it (in other words, saying that Christ could not be brought into the world by the blessed Virgin Mary without the Immaculate Conception) is placing an unnecessary limit upon the power of God.
Mickey what ST Thomas said about Mary had to be untouched by sin in order for her son to be untouched is what I was trying to explain to you.You know I like you rinnie…but please do not put words in my mouth. What Mickey is saying is: There is no Tradition from the early Church which corroborates the late innovation of the Roman Catholic doctrine of the IC. It is not necessary to believe that St Mary was an exception when it comes to original sin. Original sin is a human attribute and St Mary was human…Christ received the fulness of humanity from her. Does this mean that Christ was born with sin…of course not…He is the Son of God.
But it does not mean she was conceived without original sin.all we need is Angel Gabriel to introduce that Mary was full of grace…and that means she had no sin…
I think the big one is papal infallibility (1870).Certainly, I would not consider this particular top necessary to have such a profound schism…
Christ saved us all. Eve was about disobedience…St Mary was about obedience—her affirmative response to the angel Gabriel.If your answer to this is NO Eve did not have O.S. and God saved her from it. How can he not save the Blessed Mother.
Indeed she was blessed amongst women and Christ is the fruit of her womb…but this had nothing to do with the innovation of the immaculate conception…you are not making any sense.How could she be called Blessed are YOU among Women and Blessed is the fruit of thy womb Jesus.
For you it is…it is a doctrine of the RCC.And it IS necessary to believe that the Blessed Mother was saved from Original sin. It really is.
Sorry rinnie. It is not insanity to believe that St Mary was born with original sin like you and I…but through the grace of God and her own free will, through great ascetism, she remained sinless in preparation for the Anunciation! This is a glorious example to the entire human race that we can choose (by grace) to be free from the passions…like our mother…the Most Holy Theotokos.You do not understand what you are saying. IF the Blessed Mother had original sin and she could not be saved from it by God Do you see the insanity of this statement you are making?
These changes brought about the economic turmoil we have today in the world. Who can say what may have happened if the Catholic church had stayed her ground.Yes I thought that might be the case but you can’t just take part of what I said. The article I quoted also said
The concept of money has changed. Money today is a commodity in itself which was not the case in the Middle Ages. In the second example of the farmer loaning out his cow is comparative to the bank loaning out money. My mother in law loaned us money to buy a house. This was money that would earn her interest in the bank. It was not just to take the money and repay only the loan amount because that would not repay her for what she would loose. Just like it wouldn’t be just for the farmer not to be compensated for his milk. Note that it is talking about medieval times. The use of money has changed.
He was also completely divine…remember? This is a great mystery.If Mary could only be completely human by having original sin, than it follows that Jesus could only be human by having a orginal sin.
No “you” are saying that, what is accurate in stating is the fact the early fathers were referrenced in the IC. Thats what I’m saying.You are saying that it existed from the beginning. The burden of proof is on you to show us.
Wrong. I have stated that it is not patristic or part of the ancient Church. You say otherwise. Prove it.No “you” are saying that,
Agreed.Irenaeus is a perfect example in this thread. Did he specifically speak on the IC? Of course not
Can you show this to us patristically?And the second part of the IC really relates Mary to Eve to Genesis.
Good points, Jon. Could the Orthodox accept the idea of the IC as theologoumena? I do not know. But Rome went ahead and declared it to be doctrine (something that RC’s are bound to believe). This is a problem. Rome cannot go back retroactively and say that the IC is theologoumena-----to do so would also render their doctrine of papal infallibility as null and void.Can any of the issues that have resulted since the Schism, such as the one above, be resolved in such a way that they are not Church dividing? Could one of those ways be by a willingness to accept the each other’s teaching as sufficiently apostolic?