T
Thorwald
Guest
You missed the point. I do not believe that ‘any’ human being actually ‘touched’ Christ after His resurrection. I know that Mary (Christ’s mother) is not the specific ‘Mary’ that the scripture refers to in my quote. I am using the scripture to mean ‘all mankind’.Wrong Mary.
Jesus Christ had completed His work on earth at the time of His death & resurrection. He simply was now providing proof (witnesses) of His resurrection, to certain chosen people. He was no longer a ‘man’, as we are. He was soon to ascend to His Father in order to return to the glory that He had before the world was, as Lord of Hosts (part of The Godhead). He had been judged, and found worthy. My understanding of the scripture, is that He wanted no man or woman touching Him, because He was ‘pure’ after His resurrection (not that He wasn’t pure before His death, He simply had not gone through the process of being risen from the dead and judged).
Thorwald Johansen