Whatever is moved, is moved by another

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Between being and non-being there is no proportion (because non-being is what Thomas would call an ens rationis: something that “exists” only in our minds).

However, there is a proportion among beings. I respectfully disagree with Linus2nd if he says that some kinds of accidents are non-beings.

According to Aquinas, beings (entia) display a two-fold hierarchy: a “vertical” one (angels are more perfect beings than men, who are more perfect than animals, and so on); and a “horizontal” one (substance is more of a being than a quality, which is more of a being than an an action or passion, which is more of a being than a relation).

A good image is a light with a dimmer switch: there is a sharp distinction between the light being on or off; but assuming that the light is on, there are a lot of possible degrees of brightness.

An even better image, for the purposes of a substance and its inherent accidents, is a fountain: the “substance” is like the fountain itself. Its act of being is like the well or other store of water that is its source. The qualities and quantity, which are “proximate” to the substance, are like the water that bursts out at high pressure. The other, more derived accidents (action, passion, and the various relations) are like the water that trickles out of the fountain. It is all water (being), but some of it (i.e., the substance) participates more fully in the source (the act of being) than other parts (the accidents). And even among accidents, some participate more fully than others.
I like your image of the fountain. The substance is nearest to the act of being. Indeed, the act of being is the act of the substance from which follows the accidents and their acts. You place the accident of action as like the water that trickles out of the fountain. I see what your saying as the more derived accidents are further from the act of being and the substance. However, I have a few considerations. St Thomas says that operation is the end and perfection of the creature. Operation is the act of a power and if I’m not mistaken the act of a power is in the category of action. Action is twofold: transient and immanent. As an example, charity is the perfection of the christian life and it involves the love of God and neighbor. Love is an act of the will, an operation of the will. My point is, is that if operation is the end and perfection of the creature and this involves the accident of action, can we legitimately say it is like water that trickles out of the fountain? Just a thought. Maybe a good answer to this consideration of mine which would do justice to your fountain image is that it is not just the power or will that loves, but the whole man/woman that loves.
 
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What word these Arabian philosophers used that we normally find translated as existence, I don’t know, it may have been something like esse.
One problem is that that Arabic philosophers wrote in Arabic, and I have no idea what the word for “being” is in Arabic :). In all seriousness, though, the translation that Aquinas had of Avicenna used the term esse, although for Avicenna esse had a meaning closer to our “essence.”
In the Merriam Webster dictionary I’m looking at under the word “exist,” they define this word mainly as to have being or real being This, I think, is similar to “ens” which involves an essence that has the act of being or esse. This is the being of a creature but not God who doesn’t have being but is being or esse.
In common usage, “to exist” has, for most purposes, become synonymous to “to be,” although it leaves out the so-called “logical” uses of “to be.”
You mention above, that in english ‘existence’ has only a tiny sliver of the meaing “being” does. I’m wondering if your referring to esse here and not ens.
That’s right.
I’m also wondering if in today’s usage of the verb “exist” if we said “to exist” and thought of it as an act for it is a verb, and then said the act of existing, if this would be equivalent or somewhat equivalent to esse, the act of being?
What I was getting at is that “to be” can used for a whole slew of things: from “I am tired,” to “a hobbit is not an elf,” to “the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the square of the legs,” to “I am Who Am.” “To exist” can practically only be used for the very last one (and, in that sentence, only the “Who Am,” not the “I am”).
If to exist or existence means the fact of being, then this obviously is not the act of being.
Right, at least in technical, philosophical language. Most Western philosophers, from Henry of Ghent right up to Kant, have used the term to mean “fact of being.” A few (Cajetan and his followers) equated existentia with Thomas’ actus essendi, but I think they are quite mistaken in this.
Can to exist mean the act of existing though? …]
It could, if we define it that way. I am just saying that, in fact, philosophers have used “existence” to mean the “fact of being.” And it is still used that way in contemporary philosophy. It is, if you like, a very mathematical view of being: either something “is” (exists) or it “is not” (does not exist), and there is nothing more to say, no room for degrees of being.

Also, esse in Thomas does not only mean the act of being (actus essendi) but also any of its manifestations: there is what he calls esse substantiale and esse accidentale, which are actually participations in the act of being. Esse is very much an analogical term in Thomas. Not so existentia in Cajetan or Scotus.

Thomas hardly uses the term existentia or the verb exsisto. If you do a word search, I think you come up with five or six counts. On the other had, esse is everywhere.
For it appears to me that everthing emerges from esse and not the other way around. It is the first act for if anything acts it must first be.
“First act” is also an analogical term, and you have to see what Thomas is referring to in context. “First act” basically means any act from which another, more contingent act is communicated. For example, substance, together with its “proper” accidents and habits, is frequently referred to as “first act,” and the concrete actions of that substance are “second act.” So, the actus essendi is the “most first” act (if I can use that expression).
This brings up another question, though being is the most universal concept we have, it applies to everything that is, it appears to me that St Thomas may be reducing ens (being) to esse (is). For esse is the root of ens just like be is the root of being.
Well, it depends. In the logical order, St. Thomas would probably say that the notion of ens is prior to the notion of esse, since ens is the very first notion that the intellect has access to. However, you are right, in the order of reality, we call something ens inasmuch as it “is” (=has esse).
When St Thomas talks about God’s being, I believe he generally except in a few instances just uses esse. The being of creatures is ens.
Yes, although when he says ens he means it as a substantified participle: something that is, id quod est. So creatures are ens and they have esse. The point, for Thomas, is that esse is a metaphysical principle, a perfection.
Being (ens) is composite and involves a subject with the act of being. …] St Thomas says that God’s essence and esse are identical, or rather, God’s essence is esse. I think Avicenna thought that God doesn’t even have an essence but I don’t think St Thomas went quite this far. Although St Thomas does say God is IPSUM ESSE SUBSISTENS.
Thomas says that God has an essence (or rather, is His Essence), and that the Essence is His Esse. In fact, the phrase that Thomas prefers is that God is Esse per essentiam (whereas creatures possess esse per participationem).
I guess I’m hung up on thinking that being and existing are like the same (this could be due to how in the present day we use the terms or think about them) …]
As I said, in common parlance, equating “being” and “existence” is probably mostly OK. But in philosophy, “existence” takes on a particular meaning which is, in my opinion, very foreign to St. Thomas’ actual thought.
 
…] You place the accident of action as like the water that trickles out of the fountain.
I think the water trickling out of the fountain would pertain more to the various relations. I wasn’t really considering action, but I think it would best pertain to something the fountain does, like turn a turbine, or erode a rock, or make you wet.
I see what your saying as the more derived accidents are further from the act of being and the substance. However, I have a few considerations. St Thomas says that operation is the end and perfection of the creature. Operation is the act of a power and if I’m not mistaken the act of a power is in the category of action. Action is twofold: transient and immanent. As an example, charity is the perfection of the christian life and it involves the love of God and neighbor. Love is an act of the will, an operation of the will. My point is, is that if operation is the end and perfection of the creature and this involves the accident of action, can we legitimately say it is like water that trickles out of the fountain?
It was not my intention to take the analogy that far, just to illustrate that the actions spring forth from the substance, through the faculties (=“powers”). I didn’t think about it until now, but I guess my modification above (turning a turbine) would apply only to transitive action. I don’t know if there is a way to make the fountain represent immanent action, which requires at least a sentient being, and most properly a spiritual one. (By “immanent” action, Thomas means most properly the intrinsic acts of the intellect and will.)
Just a thought. Maybe a good answer to this consideration of mine which would do justice to your fountain image is that it is not just the power or will that loves, but the whole man/woman that loves.
Good point. And not only know and love: Actiones sunt suppositorum: all actions are acts of the concrete substance from which they originate.
 
…] St Thomas says that operation is the end and perfection of the creature. …]
Look at it this way: a man who loves his neighbor is more perfect (=closer to his end or fulfillment) than a man who is indifferent. It is in that sense that the operari is the end and perfection of a creature.

However, the act of the will of the man who loves his neighbor is just an act. Its “mode of being” (the particular way in which it possesses esse) is much less perfect than the mode of being of the man (who is a substance).

(This happens to be a bad example, because love of neighbor, at least supernatural love of neighbor, does not get its power from the man’s own actus essendi but from sanctifying grace. In a way, the act of supernatural love is actually greater than the man, because the principle of that love actually God Himself! However, its “mode of being” is still that of an accident.)
 
In common usage, “to exist” has, for most purposes, become synonymous to “to be,” although it leaves out the so-called “logical” uses of “to be.”

As I said, in common parlance, equating “being” and “existence” is probably mostly OK. But in philosophy, “existence” takes on a particular meaning which is, in my opinion, very foreign to St. Thomas’ actual thought.
Imelahn, thanks so much for your responses, they are very helpful.

It appears that in both the older english translation of the ST, 1920’s, and the newer translation from Fr Thomas Gilby et.al., 1960’s, especially in I, q. 3, art.4, “Whether essence and esse (existence) are the same in God,” and in I, q.4, art.2, “Whether the perfections of all things are in God,” both these translations will use existence, exist, or to exist, in translating esse it appears. Most likely they due the same throughout the ST where applicable. In common parlance, exist does appear synonymous with “is”, for example, God is and God exists. This idea of exist or existence they are equating with the act of being, esse (whether rightly or wrongly is another question); this is a pretty fair assessment of what they are doing, right? It appears to me that this is what the translators are exactly doing.

In question 4 on God’s perfection, objection 3, there is a phrase which reads in latin “quod essentia (Gilby has natura here) Dei est ipsum esse.” In the reply to this objection, we see “ipsum esse” a few times as well. How do you translate “Dei est ipsum esse” as St Thomas meant it without using the word exist or existence. A few possibilities:
  1. God is itself “to be.”
  2. God is very “to be.”
  3. God is “to be” in itself. (there is no “in” in the phrase though).
  4. God is being itself. (why wouldn’t Thomas use ens then?)
  5. God is “to be” itself.
  6. God is very being. (again where is ens?)
  7. God is being in itself (where is the ens and in?)
  8. God is is itself or God is very is. (where is est?)
  9. God is the act of being itself. This I believe is what St Thomas means. Though we don’t see actus essendi in the phrase but just esse. Apparently, for Thomas, generally, esse means actus essendi (act of being)(cf. q.3, art.4, reply to obj.2) ? Instead of writing actus essendi, he generally just writes esse?
Is it true to say in general that in translating esse in St Thomas, we shouldn’t use being but the act of being? When he means being, does he normally use ens? (I believe Ettienne Gilson says that we hardly ever have to translate esse to ens but that Thomas sometimes uses ens for esse. He says if I’m not mistaken, that esse almost always means the act of being.)

One other thought I had for St Thomas using the verb esse (to be) in describing God’s being and not existo or exsistere or existensia (I think I have these spelled right), even if they had the meaning that in common parlance of today they seem to have, is that God didn’t reveal His name to Moses using a verb form of exist but a verb form of be. Thomas, being the theologian he was, faithful to Holy Scripture, the highest truth, and to the teaching and tradition of the Catholic Church, how could he give a name to God that God himself didn’t give! No, Thomas wouldn’t dare do such a thing. God said “I am who am” and “He who is.” God didn’t say “I am who exists” or “He who exists.”

Thanks and God bless, Rich
 
Imelahn, thanks so much for your responses, they are very helpful.

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  1. God is itself “to be.”
  2. God is very “to be.”
  3. God is “to be” in itself. (there is no “in” in the phrase though).
  4. God is being itself. (why wouldn’t Thomas use ens then?)
  5. God is “to be” itself.
  6. God is very being. (again where is ens?)
  7. God is being in itself (where is the ens and in?)
  8. God is is itself or God is very is. (where is est?)
  9. God is the act of being itself.
I think the closest one is number 5, although number 6 will do if “being” means “to be.” In the strict sense, God can’t be ens because the notion of ens entails participation.
Is it true to say in general that in translating esse in St Thomas, we shouldn’t use being but the act of being?
Esse means “act of being” as opposed to “something that is,” but it is more generic than what Thomas means when we uses the expression actus essendi. As I mentioned, from the actus essendi (the root, most fundamental kind of esse) flows something called esse substantiale; and from this in turn flows esse accidentale; and finally, operari. All four of these would be covered by the term esse.
When he means being, does he normally use ens?
I have never done a word count, but you can just glance at the Latin whenever Thomas uses the word “being” to see which one he meant.
One other thought I had for St Thomas using the verb esse (to be) in describing God’s being and not existo or exsistere or existensia (I think I have these spelled right), even if they had the meaning that in common parlance of today they seem to have, is that God didn’t reveal His name to Moses using a verb form of exist but a verb form of be. Thomas, being the theologian he was, faithful to Holy Scripture, the highest truth, and to the teaching and tradition of the Catholic Church, how could he give a name to God that God himself didn’t give! No, Thomas wouldn’t dare do such a thing. God said “I am who am” and “He who is.” God didn’t say “I am who exists” or “He who exists.”
It is certainly possible that this kind of consideration influenced Thomas. But don’t forget Pseudo-Denys the Areopagite and Aristotle himself (arguably the two greatest philosophical influences on Thomas). Neither of them would have thought of using the term “existentia” either.
 
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