When did Eastern bishops start allowing for remarriages?

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I’m not sure if it started before or after the Schism, so I don’t know if it’s more appropriate to call them Orthodox bishops or Eastern bishops. But I figure they’re in the Eastern direction either way, so…

From what I’ve read about it so far, Orthodox bishops may allow for remarriage after a divorce by exercising something called “οικονόμια.” Economia (or economy) is a deviation from the letter of the law according to the bishops’ discretion if they believe handling it in a different way will uphold the spirit of the law.

It comes up in situations that don’t have to do with marriage as well, but I was wondering when this started being applied specifically to the issue of remarriage. Do we have a date on that? Is there anything definitive that indicates whether or not this was practiced prior to the Schism?
 
I’m not sure if it started before or after the Schism, so I don’t know if it’s more appropriate to call them Orthodox bishops or Eastern bishops. But I figure they’re in the Eastern direction either way, so…

From what I’ve read about it so far, Orthodox bishops may allow for remarriage after a divorce by exercising something called “οικονόμια.” Economia (or economy) is a deviation from the letter of the law according to the bishops’ discretion if they believe handling it in a different way will uphold the spirit of the law.

It comes up in situations that don’t have to do with marriage as well, but I was wondering when this started being applied specifically to the issue of remarriage. Do we have a date on that? Is there anything definitive that indicates whether or not this was practiced prior to the Schism?
Let me rephrase the question for you. When did the Latin Church STOP allowing remarriage? Everyone here always thinks the Church has always been as they see it today. 🤷
 
Also, not just because oikonomia allows for divorce and remarriage, it doesn’t mean it happens all the time, every time.
 
I don’t know. When?
Time to do your homework. Until very recently annulments in the Latin church were reserved for Royalty. They were not given to the regular Joe in the street. That might be your first line of research. 🙂
 
Time to do your homework. Until very recently annulments in the Latin church were reserved for Royalty. They were not given to the regular Joe in the street. That might be your first line of research. 🙂
Oh, I see. I didn’t know that. I was actually trying to find out about remarriages that don’t involve annulments, though. But that’s good info, too. Where does it come from?
 
Time to do your homework. Until very recently annulments in the Latin church were reserved for Royalty. They were not given to the regular Joe in the street. That might be your first line of research. 🙂
Ok.annulments for Royalty.NOw annulments for lay people too.An annulment has particular requirements.As one spouse cant have children.Or a daughter was forced to marry a man whom she was against.Many examples.Remarriage is still not allowed.Never was.
 
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Ok.annulments for Royalty.NOw annulments for lay people too.An annulment has particular requirements.As one spouse cant have children.Or a daughter was forced to marry a man whom she was against.Many examples.Remarriage is still not allowed.Never was.
There is quite a history of remarriage i the church…do your homework…as I stated earlier…just because something is what you see today…dosen’t mean it was always such. Research!
 
“When did Eastern bishops start allowing for remarriages?”

“The LORD God planted a garden toward the east, in Eden; and there He placed the man whom He had formed.” (Genesis 2:8)

…Not a direct answer, I know. But I’ve given direct answers to this type of question before only to the end that it gives offense to Roman Catholics. This is just my :twocents: worth…

First marriage:
“God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; Male and Female He created them.” (Genesis 1:27)

Remarriage:
“It is not good for the man to be alone; I will make him a helper suitable for him…for Adam there was not found a helper suitable for him…The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the man, and brought her to the man.” (Genesis 2:18,20,22)

Male & Female were created in Chapter One, yet in Chapter Two Adam was alone, so the Lord God made Eve, “the Mother of all living”, for Adam.

Two cents :twocents: worth for two marriages.

Ok, here’s a third cent:

The second marriage is a penitential marriage, that is a marriage of repentance! The idea comes FROM THE VERY EARLIEST DAYS OF THE CHURCH from the idea that when a man sins he should be given a second chance. After the sin of divorce, and after the point when restitution of the first marriage is not possible, a second marriage, if allowed, is a granting of a second chance. Restitution of the first marriage is ideal, but quite frankly, if there is adultery involved, restitution is an abomination!

Furthermore, consider this: A marriage of repentance IS SUPERIOR to a so-called ideal marriage, though it might seem rash to say so! The PRIMARY reason for marriage is to save your soul! The reason for a second chance is to save your soul. The reason for “economia” is to save your soul. The Eastern Fathers have taught that the man who sins and repents IS GREATER than the man who never sinned.

Enough said.

I concur with [user]ciero[/user] who well said: “Let me rephrase the question for you. When did the Latin Church STOP allowing remarriage?”
 
JohnVIII
Restitution of the first marriage is ideal, but quite frankly, if there is adultery involved, restitution is an abomination!
Really? With all due respect, this seems contrary to the Christian spirit. Marriage is a model of Christ and His bride the Church…is it an abomination for Our Blessed Lord to take back the members of his bride after they fall again and again, committing adultery in the heart by chasing after false gods? The Prophet Hosea was commanded to forgive and receive his unfaithful wife. Sometimes reconciliation simply isn’t possible…but to suggest that it is an ABOMINATION to forgive an unfaithful spouse seems, to me, a very bold and rash statement! Also, if the second marriage is, in some way, greater, why are the crowns not used? (At least traditionally).

Can someone please provide evidence that the Church, from the earliest days, condoned remarriage? I understood that it was a later development in the Byzantine Empire and that originally second marriages were simply civil affairs without an ecclesiastical ceremony, which wasn’t added until what would have been, in the West, the early Middle Ages…there was an extension discussion on this topic on this board a while back and I’m hoping someone else remembers the details as I don’t have references on hand.
 
JohnVIII

Really? With all due respect, this seems contrary to the Christian spirit. Marriage is a model of Christ and His bride the Church…is it an abomination for Our Blessed Lord to take back the members of his bride after they fall again and again, committing adultery in the heart by chasing after false gods? The Prophet Hosea was commanded to forgive and receive his unfaithful wife. Sometimes reconciliation simply isn’t possible…but to suggest that it is an ABOMINATION to forgive an unfaithful spouse seems, to me, a very bold and rash statement! Also, if the second marriage is, in some way, greater, why are the crowns not used? (At least traditionally).

Can someone please provide evidence that the Church, from the earliest days, condoned remarriage? I understood that it was a later development in the Byzantine Empire and that originally second marriages were simply civil affairs without an ecclesiastical ceremony, which wasn’t added until what would have been, in the West, the early Middle Ages…there was an extension discussion on this topic on this board a while back and I’m hoping someone else remembers the details as I don’t have references on hand.
The Latin Church allowed remarriage until long past the Middle Ages.(as well as a married priesthood, but thats another topic :D)…I think since this is an Eastern forum we will ask that you Latins defend the modern Latin tradition of NOT allowing remarriage.
 
Can someone please provide evidence that the Church, from the earliest days, condoned remarriage? I understood that it was a later development in the Byzantine Empire and that originally second marriages were simply civil affairs without an ecclesiastical ceremony, which wasn’t added until what would have been, in the West, the early Middle Ages…there was an extension discussion on this topic on this board a while back and I’m hoping someone else remembers the details as I don’t have references on hand.
Marriage in the west was initially a civil service as well to my understanding.
 
There is quite a history of remarriage i the church…do your homework…as I stated earlier…just because something is what you see today…dosen’t mean it was always such. Research!
Since you are the one bringing this up, it falls to you to provide the references. 🙂
 
Since you are the one bringing this up, it falls to you to provide the references. 🙂
I believe the OP is the one who accused the Easterners in changing remarriage practices…I’m just pointing out where they might want to start looking for the answer. 😃
 
I believe the OP is the one who accused the Easterners in changing remarriage practices…I’m just pointing out where they might want to start looking for the answer. 😃
The OP did not “accuse” Eastern Christians of anything. He/she asked a question. Coming here to look for answers IS reseach. If you don’t have the answer or if you don’t care to share what you know, then nothing is to be gained from changing the subject.
 
The OP did not “accuse” Eastern Christians of anything. He/she asked a question. Coming here to look for answers IS reseach. If you don’t have the answer or if you don’t care to share what you know, then nothing is to be gained from changing the subject.
The OP’s premise is flawed. Read the title of the thread…When did the Eastern bishops? The Eastern bishops did nothing…it was the West that changed their discipline. If the OP cares to do some research then come back to discuss then we can dialog…when folks have a flawed understanding about what it is they are talking about…it really is hard to dialog. So once again I ask…when did the Western church change their discipline about remarriage?
 
There is quite a history of remarriage i the church…do your homework…as I stated earlier…just because something is what you see today…dosen’t mean it was always such. Research!
let me understand this?the Latin church allowed divorced people to get remarried without an annulment in the past.Are you saying divorced people who were not married in the Church?Are we talking about divorced non catholics who convert aand now are able to get married in the Church?
 
let me understand this?the Latin church allowed divorced people to get remarried without an annulment in the past.Are you saying divorced people who were not married in the Church?Are we talking about divorced non catholics who convert aand now are able to get married in the Church?
I’m talking in the Middle Ages!

Marriage was ONLY done in the church.

Annulments were only for Royalty…as a way to allow Kings who needed to produce an heir, out of a marriage that was “unproductive” (think Henry VIII).

A regular Joe who didn’t want to be married to Mary anymore…just left and married Alice. The church did not stop this, it was accepted custom throughout Europe.
 
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