When did Eastern bishops start allowing for remarriages?

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josephDaniel29: Im not the sharpest knife in the drawer but tell me what that Bologna means.If your saying im full of it I’ll understand.
No my friend you are not full of baloney…what you said was baloney. Toleration of a second and in extreme circumstances third marriage was practiced in the East for many centuries prior to the schism. Rome never had an issue with it. In fact, in Cardinal Humbert’s famous rant, divorce and remarriage was not even mentioned as a cause for the split. That was some seven hundred years after St Basil laid out penances for second and third marriages. 👍
 
This is what Basil the Great said, he was an eastern bishop of the fourth century:
“A man who marries after another man’s wife has been taken away from him will be charged with adultery in the case of the first woman; but in the case of the second he will be guiltless” (Second Canonical Letter to Amphilochius 199:37 [A.D. 375]).
Of all the Eastern Fathers you could pick to support your position St Basil is probably the worst. 😉

His Canons, which prescribed penances for second and third marriages, were formally received into the canonical literature of the Church at the Quinisext Council in 692. They had been in use in the East for several centuries prior to that. During all those longs centuries Rome was in communion with Churches that would admit divorced/remarried individuals back to Communion after a period of penance. It’s only much later, centuries after the schism, that this became an issue for Rome.
 
Because of Christ’s words about divorce in the Gospels, I assumed that the Orthodox Church and the eastern Catholic churches would generally be as strict about it as the Latin Church.
When a couple can get an annulment because the bride stumped her toe on her wedding day I would be hesitant to call the Latin practice “strict.” 😉
 
Hi Brother Joe,

Could you provide some links with historical examples of divorces being granted in the East prior to the Schism and maybe also provide some links from Orthodox websites discussing this ancient practice? Much-obliged 🙂

Gurney (whose Giants are #1 in Spring Training and uh-lookin’ good! :p:cool:)
Of all the Eastern Fathers you could pick to support your position St Basil is probably the worst. 😉

His Canons, which prescribed penances for second and third marriages, were formally received into the canonical literature of the Church at the Quinisext Council in 692. They had been in use in the East for several centuries prior to that. During all those longs centuries Rome was in communion with Churches that would admit divorced/remarried individuals back to Communion after a period of penance. It’s only much later, centuries after the schism, that this became an issue for Rome.
 
Hi Brother Joe,

Could you provide some links with historical examples of divorces being granted in the East prior to the Schism and maybe also provide some links from Orthodox websites discussing this ancient practice? Much-obliged 🙂

Gurney (whose Giants are #1 in Spring Training and uh-lookin’ good! :p:cool:)
Here is link to the Canons of St Basil. The entire thing is interesting for a number of reasons, not the least of which is the severity of the penances.

Link

Here is a link to the webpage of the Eastern Diocese of the Russian Orthodox Church Outside of Russia. It lists the reasons for dissolution of marriage. In ROCOR, just like many other jurisdicitons, an ecclesiastical divorce is required to be readmitted to Communion. These are often heard by spiritual courts not that different from Catholic marriage tribunals.

Link

Also both parties in a divorce may be excommunicated for a period of time and the guilty party (there is always a guilty party, no no-fault divorces) may not be given permission to remarry. Here is a link to an Encyclical of the Holy Synod of the OCA regarding marriage.

Link
 
A regular Joe who didn’t want to be married to Mary anymore…just left and married Alice. The church did not stop this, it was accepted custom throughout Europe.
This is really a stretch. Saying that this practice is evidence that divorce was allowed is either intentionally misleading or it’s fully ignorant. Marriage is a sacrament administered by the partners, not by a priest or deacon. Therefore, people would often have marriages with just their families, or even with just the partners. By making an oath, the sacrament was administered.

Now, some unscrupulous men (and most likely unscrupulous women) certainly lied about the fact that they were married. “No, she was simply my public concubine, and I have fled from sin and left her.” They then “married” again. And again. And again.

Over time, canon law was amended in response to the weakness of men and women to require a member of the clergy and two witnesses. It took ages, but then again, how many centuries did it take to define the nature of Christ’s will? That does not imply that the Church was in heresy for all that time.

If you dig hard enough (or maybe even not that hard), you will find local synods and bishops in the west giving rules for divorce. Those rules will be in contradiction to the rules promulgated by other synods and bishops which prohibit divorce. Does this mean that the Western Church allowed divorce? No, it no more means that than the timing of the Nicene Council means that the Church taught that Jesus was a creature.
 
Thanks, Joe. I’ll check 'em out. I better read them carefully. I don’t want to be accused of being full of Oscar Meyer!! 😃
Here is link to the Canons of St Basil. The entire thing is interesting for a number of reasons, not the least of which is the severity of the penances.

Link

Here is a link to the webpage of the Eastern Diocese of the Russian Orthodox Church Outside of Russia. It lists the reasons for dissolution of marriage. In ROCOR, just like many other jurisdicitons, an ecclesiastical divorce is required to be readmitted to Communion. These are often heard by spiritual courts not that different from Catholic marriage tribunals.

Link

Also both parties in a divorce may be excommunicated for a period of time and the guilty party (there is always a guilty party, no no-fault divorces) may not be given permission to remarry. Here is a link to an Encyclical of the Holy Synod of the OCA regarding marriage.

Link
 
This is really a stretch. Saying that this practice is evidence that divorce was allowed is either intentionally misleading or it’s fully ignorant. Marriage is a sacrament administered by the partners, not by a priest or deacon. Therefore, people would often have marriages with just their families, or even with just the partners. By making an oath, the sacrament was administered.

Now, some unscrupulous men (and most likely unscrupulous women) certainly lied about the fact that they were married. “No, she was simply my public concubine, and I have fled from sin and left her.” They then “married” again. And again. And again.

Over time, canon law was amended in response to the weakness of men and women to require a member of the clergy and two witnesses. It took ages, but then again, how many centuries did it take to define the nature of Christ’s will? That does not imply that the Church was in heresy for all that time.

If you dig hard enough (or maybe even not that hard), you will find local synods and bishops in the west giving rules for divorce. Those rules will be in contradiction to the rules promulgated by other synods and bishops which prohibit divorce. Does this mean that the Western Church allowed divorce? No, it no more means that than the timing of the Nicene Council means that the Church taught that Jesus was a creature.
So now Jesus wasn’t a man (creature)? 🤷
 
“When did Eastern bishops start allowing for remarriages?”

“The LORD God planted a garden toward the east, in Eden; and there He placed the man whom He had formed.” (Genesis 2:8)

…Not a direct answer, I know. But I’ve given direct answers to this type of question before only to the end that it gives offense to Roman Catholics. This is just my :twocents: worth…

First marriage:
“God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; Male and Female He created them.” (Genesis 1:27)

Remarriage:
“It is not good for the man to be alone; I will make him a helper suitable for him…for Adam there was not found a helper suitable for him…The LORD God fashioned into a woman the rib which He had taken from the man, and brought her to the man.” (Genesis 2:18,20,22)

Male & Female were created in Chapter One, yet in Chapter Two Adam was alone, so the Lord God made Eve, “the Mother of all living”, for Adam.

Two cents :twocents: worth for two marriages.

Ok, here’s a third cent:

The second marriage is a penitential marriage, that is a marriage of repentance! The idea comes FROM THE VERY EARLIEST DAYS OF THE CHURCH from the idea that when a man sins he should be given a second chance. After the sin of divorce, and after the point when restitution of the first marriage is not possible, a second marriage, if allowed, is a granting of a second chance. Restitution of the first marriage is ideal, but quite frankly, if there is adultery involved, restitution is an abomination!

Furthermore, consider this: A marriage of repentance IS SUPERIOR to a so-called ideal marriage, though it might seem rash to say so! The PRIMARY reason for marriage is to save your soul! The reason for a second chance is to save your soul. The reason for “economia” is to save your soul. The Eastern Fathers have taught that the man who sins and repents IS GREATER than the man who never sinned.

Enough said.

I concur with [user]ciero[/user] who well said: “Let me rephrase the question for you. When did the Latin Church STOP allowing remarriage?”
JohnVIII,

Are you referring to Jewish folklore about Adam having a first wife named Lilith, who was created at the same time and from the same earth as Adam in the creation account of Genesis Chapter 1?

Peace,
Anna
 
It’s been so many years since “Cheers” was on I would venture to say nobody would recognize good ole Lilith Sternon Crane LOL!

yes, make sure you get that “decree of nullity” right or Jim will jump all over you like white on rice. He’s been gone for days now. Hope all’s ok with him. He told me recently he’s having major tech issues and is getting a new computer that his son in law is setting up for him. That’s probably why he’s taking the sabatacle LOL
You’re too funny, Gurney. Though, if this Lilith was Adam’s first wife, God may have allowed a “Decree of Nullity” (must get the term right in case GKC finds my post. ;))

Peace,
Anna

Edited to add P.S. See picture of the Lilith of Jewish folklore at wikipedia–it’s too graphic to insert in my post. See link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lilith
 
It’s been so many years since “Cheers” was on I would venture to say nobody would recognize good ole Lilith Sternon Crane LOL!

yes, make sure you get that “decree of nullity” right or Jim will jump all over you like white on rice. He’s been gone for days now. Hope all’s ok with him. He told me recently he’s having major tech issues and is getting a new computer that his son in law is setting up for him. That’s probably why he’s taking the sabatacle LOL
I remember Lilith in both “Cheers” and “Frasier.” I still watch the reruns of both.

Hopefully, we’ll hear from Jim soon.

Anna
 
I still think the funniest man on the face of the planet is Jerry Stiller. King of Queens is THE funniest show I’ve ever had the pleasure of watching LOL!!

Jim will be back. We just need to start a thread and stick the word “ANGLICAN” in it and we’re good! 😛
I remember Lilith in both “Cheers” and “Frasier.” I still watch the reruns of both.

Hopefully, we’ll hear from Jim soon.

Anna
 
So now Jesus wasn’t a man (creature)? 🤷
While it’s entirely off-topic and you seem to have missed the entire point of the post (which is that the Church’s delay in proclaiming something does not make its alternative true), “creature” is not the same as “man”. “Creature” is a created being, and it was the position of Arius that Jesus was created by the father in time. The council proclaimed that he was begotten, not created, of the same substance as the father, and from eternity.

It took the Church 300 years to say that Jesus’ was of the same substance as the Father, was begotten instead of created, and was eternal. That doesn’t mean that we were all Arians before the council. The same holds true for rules in the Church concerning divorce. Her delay does not indicate her assent.
 
While it’s entirely off-topic and you seem to have missed the entire point of the post (which is that the Church’s delay in proclaiming something does not make its alternative true), “creature” is not the same as “man”. “Creature” is a created being, and it was the position of Arius that Jesus was created by the father in time. The council proclaimed that he was begotten, not created, of the same substance as the father, and from eternity.

It took the Church 300 years to say that Jesus’ was of the same substance as the Father, was begotten instead of created, and was eternal. That doesn’t mean that we were all Arians before the council. The same holds true for rules in the Church concerning divorce. Her delay does not indicate her assent.
Thats VERY true…BUT the fact that the church DID allow for it and now does not is a different story.
 
Yes, certain local synods and bishops allowed for divorce while other local synods and bishops refused to allow for divorce. Often at the exact same time. I think what that shows is confusion and a lack of organization, not official tolerance of the Western Churches. So the Church herself did not proclaim tolerance of divorce, but you are correct in your assertion that individual bishops and synods did allow divorce and remarriage.
 
That’s VERY true…BUT the fact that the church DID allow for it and now does not is a different story.
On another thread - or was it this one? - someone commented that the historical reality is more complex because the state generally took care of marriage matters and the Church often wasn’t formally involved.

I know the secular Byzantine authorities recognized divorce in certain cases. Can we really say that the acquiescence of the early Church on this matter means that the Church “allowed” or “approved” divorce? According to Smith above (and I don’t know the details of this history myself), the Church really had no consistent, universal position on this but took conflicting stances.

Honestly, I really am convinced that the position of the Catholic Church - and not just the Latin Church but the eastern Catholic churches as well - is the most faithful to our Lord’s words about divorce in the gospels… it may look harsh, but in one form or another self-denial is an inevitable part of following Christ. The Catholic Church’s expectations may seem too high on a worldly level, but Christ is the one who said that “if you have faith as small as a mustard seed, you can say to this mountain, ‘Move from here to there’ and it will move. Nothing will be impossible for you” and “With God all things are possible.”

I realize I’m ignorant of the reasons for Orthodox tradition on the matter, so I welcome further elaboration, but I just don’t understand how living in a sexual relationship with someone when one’s “previous” spouse is still alive can ever constitute anything but adultery…
 
From what I’ve read about it so far, Orthodox bishops may allow for remarriage after a divorce … but I was wondering when this started being applied specifically to the issue of remarriage. Do we have a date on that? Is there anything definitive that indicates whether or not this was practiced prior to the Schism?
If by “allow for remarriage” you mean administering in the church a rite of Holy Matrimony that did not happen in East until the 8th century. If you mean remove the penalty of lengthy excommunication for those contracting a second marriage, I think that allowance is much more recent, perhaps even 19th century.

here are some links to previous discussions:
byzcath.org/forums/ubbthreads.php/topics/333262/1
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=516713&highlight=marriage
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=423050&highlight=marriage
and the last several pages of
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=516524&highlight=marriage&page=19
 
If by “allow for remarriage” you mean administering in the church a rite of Holy Matrimony that did not happen in East until the 8th century. If you mean remove the penalty of lengthy excommunication for those contracting a second marriage, I think that allowance is much more recent, perhaps even 19th century.

here are some links to previous discussions:
byzcath.org/forums/ubbthreads.php/topics/333262/1
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=516713&highlight=marriage
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=423050&highlight=marriage
and the last several pages of
forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=516524&highlight=marriage&page=19
DVDJS - thanks…this is exactly what I was looking for. Earlier in the thread I maintained that ecclesiastical second marriages were a novelty, and that the modern EO idea (at least in some circles) that the second marriage, after a divorce, is fully sacramental is even more of a departure from tradition. It is sometimes frustrating when certain EO and EC Christians insist that the East has never changed anything significant from the time of the Apostles while the Western Church never ceases to introduce novelty after novelty…it is refreshing to see Eastern Christians acknowleding that there has been significant development in practice and theology in the East as well as in the West.
 
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