When did the Eastern Orthodox Church officially condemn indulgences? and related questions

[Genesis315]

I don’t want this to become a limbo thread, but it bears poinging out that the issue is not whether there is the loss of the beatific vision without actual torments is a potential final state, but whether individual particular souls definitively end up in that state. The International Theological Institute published a paper (that carries no authority itself) that explained this issue very well, re-affirmed the possibility of this state, but also discussing other feasible possibilities. There was no repudiation of anything at all (the mainstream media was sloppier than usual on this one).

It can be read here :
vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/cti_documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_20070419_un-baptised-infants_en.html

 

[Isa_Almisry]

That brings us to an interesting question Isa! How are we to know “what of the rest of the Orthodox?”

Someone said, My own I know and My own know Me.

Seems like that entails no small amount of certitude in understanding where all the various churches that make up the autocephalous polyarchy of the Orthodox communion stand…

Check your local diptych.

And when you and TR Valentine disagree as to wether certain local councils were actually (as stated in some documents) the 8th & 9th Ecumenical Councils of Orthodoxy, how are we to weigh the claims and decide which of you two (if either!) are correct?

The jot and title of difference between us is that I do not consider C IV and V Ecumenical. I also consider them Pan-Orthodox, correct, binding and valid, and do not disagree with any of their decisions. So not a very practical difference, at least not in this context.

 

[Isa_Almisry]

This does then bring up the question of what makes a council ecumenical. To my understanding, it is that it binds the whole Church. But how does it do this? The Council of 1727 seemed to attempt to bind the whole Church, but, as Orthodox posters have said, it is not binding. Is it because a majority of the Church chose not to receive it? Yet, at the 7 many, many bishops were not present and huge portions of people chose not to accept, even a majority were Arian after Nicea I. So who judges whether or not a Council can bind? Does each individual Orthodox person get to personally judge a Council? Do bishops have any binding authority to decide matters of faith?

You decide which boat you are going to get into, and you float, or sink, according to that decision.

 

[ASimpleSinner]

(1)Someone said, My own I know and My own know Me.
(2) Check your local diptych.
(3) The jot and title of difference between us is that I do not consider C IV and V Ecumenical. I also consider them Pan-Orthodox, correct, binding and valid, and do not disagree with any of their decisions. So not a very practical difference, at least not in this context.

1. So when one just is Orthodox one can count on a certitude on what is Orthodox?
2. The local diptych won’t affirm a particular church’s affirmation of a local council. That is a non sequitar.

1. It isn’t a practical difference in your mind… Which I guess just adds to my question a new dimension.

And when you and TR Valentine disagree as to wether certain local councils were actually (as stated in some documents) the 8th & 9th Ecumenical Councils of Orthodoxy, how are we to weigh the claims and decide which of you two (if either!) are correct? If they are not ecumenical how are we to decide for ourselves that they are Pan-Orthodox, correct, binding and valid? Are we free to disagree with any of their decisions?