F
fakename
Guest
Having thought about this more (by reading an Aquinas commentary on Politics) I can more profitably re-ask the same questions and a few new ones.
Here they are: Is the authority of the state derived from two sources (1) it’s ability to provide the means of life and (2) it’s ability to provide the means of moral improvement?
Also do you think that there are certain rights which are equal among all men and that these include the right to food, property, health (as opposed to rights like honor or good birth or positive rights)? Or can one believe that not everyone even has the same degree of even the former rights though they all equally have the same quality of rights (by quality I mean that they are all human rights and potentially (at least) equal)?
That is, do people have equal rights and if they do, do they have equal degrees of rights?
But a second set of questions also occurs to me. For one, if the state’s power is as wide as its ability to provide the means towards morality then what will be the power of the Church? Also, how can it be possible that the state should never extend its laws to all things? Perhaps it can extend its laws to all things but not all aspects of all things?
Also, if equitability is a virtue (and if its nature is to correct the failings of law) then how can the law apply to everything? For then the law, which makes men good, would destroy a virtue by providing for all things?
And if the state has authority based on its ability to meet the material needs of men, then
does the state have the authority to nationalize property? If such nationalization generally leads to poverty, then how can the state fulfill its task to bring men to happiness which latter entails riches?
But perhaps the state does not derive authority from exactly this action. Perhaps by “meeting the material needs of men” the state doesn’t complete and make possible the realization of material satisfaction but rather the state makes possible the realization of one particular economic benefit, namely security or insurance?
Thoughts and comments are quite needed please.
Here they are: Is the authority of the state derived from two sources (1) it’s ability to provide the means of life and (2) it’s ability to provide the means of moral improvement?
Also do you think that there are certain rights which are equal among all men and that these include the right to food, property, health (as opposed to rights like honor or good birth or positive rights)? Or can one believe that not everyone even has the same degree of even the former rights though they all equally have the same quality of rights (by quality I mean that they are all human rights and potentially (at least) equal)?
That is, do people have equal rights and if they do, do they have equal degrees of rights?
But a second set of questions also occurs to me. For one, if the state’s power is as wide as its ability to provide the means towards morality then what will be the power of the Church? Also, how can it be possible that the state should never extend its laws to all things? Perhaps it can extend its laws to all things but not all aspects of all things?
Also, if equitability is a virtue (and if its nature is to correct the failings of law) then how can the law apply to everything? For then the law, which makes men good, would destroy a virtue by providing for all things?
And if the state has authority based on its ability to meet the material needs of men, then
does the state have the authority to nationalize property? If such nationalization generally leads to poverty, then how can the state fulfill its task to bring men to happiness which latter entails riches?
But perhaps the state does not derive authority from exactly this action. Perhaps by “meeting the material needs of men” the state doesn’t complete and make possible the realization of material satisfaction but rather the state makes possible the realization of one particular economic benefit, namely security or insurance?
Thoughts and comments are quite needed please.