Where is this taught in the bible?

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Brian, what is your response to the OP below:

Based on my last thread regarding the non-Catholic consensus of what sola scriptura is, and is not, I have concluded that the bible, as per sola scriptura advocates, is the Christians only source of divine authority via private interpretation, and that all Christians, as per the practice of sola scriptura, must defer to the authority of the bible alone via private interpretation, (with the exception of one SS advocate) - as opposed to deferring to the authority of the Catholic Church or any other Protestant Church for that matter. I am told that All have the right to read the bible (with which I agree, to a point…) - as it has been written, and discern truth for themselves via private interpretation: no church Bishop or Pastor (regardless of church affiliation) - is needed to further expound that which has been expounded by the Spirit of Christ in the Prophets and the Apostles.

Where is this taught in the bible??? 2 Timothy 3 does not teach this…
 
Your opinion of a person who far out qualifies yourself in matters of early ecclesiastical writings is of absolutely no consequence to me.
For context on my remarks about Schaff’s footnote that you comment on, here again is the exerpt from Irenaeus, (Against Heresies, Bk 3 Ch 3, paragraph 2) followed by Schaff’s footnote

" 2. Since, however, it would be very tedious, in such a volume as this, to reckon up the successions of all the Churches, we do put to confusion all those who, in whatever manner, whether by an evil self-pleasing, by vainglory, or by blindness and perverse opinion, assemble in unauthorized meetings; [we do this, I say,] by indicating that tradition derived from the apostles, of the very great, the very ancient, and universally known Church founded and organized at Rome by the two most glorious apostles, Peter and Paul; as also [by pointing out] the faith preached to men, which comes down to our time by means of the successions of the bishops. For it is a matter of necessity that every Church should agree with this Church, on account of its pre- eminent authority,3313 "

Here is footnote 3313 by Schaff (emphasis and comments on Schaff’s comments, are mine)

"The Latin text of this difficult but important clause is, “Ad hanc enim ecclesiam propter potiorem principalitatem necesse est omnem convenire ecclesiam.” Both the text and meaning have here given rise to much discussion. It is impossible to say with certainty of what words in the Greek original “potiorem principalitatem” may be the translation. We are far from sure that the rendering given above is correct, but we have been unable to think of anything better. [A most extraordinary confession. It would be hard to find a worse; " ( this isn’t difficult for Catholics. It’s difficult for Schaff and he admits trying to think of a different term because nothing could be worse for Schaff and all other non Catholics reading this. THAT’S what’s going on. EVERYONE can see that what Irenaeus just said is not good for Protestants and Orthodox, i.e. non Catholics. So Schaff tries to do damage control rather than take Irenaeus at his word.

Schaff’s footnote continues.

“but take the following from a candid Roman Catholic, which is better and more literal:
“For to this Church, on account of more potent principality, it is necessary that every Church (that is, those who are on every side faithful) resort; in which Church ever, by those who are on every side, has been preserved that tradition which is from the apostles.” (Berington and Kirk, vol. i. p. 252.)” Berington & Kirk. are 2 Ultra liberal clerics who don’t support the Catholic position. Schaff quotes THEM. And people can see that this lame attempt to manipulate text for another person’s agenda. It’s called inserting bias.

Schaff’s footnote continues

"Here it is obvious that the faith was kept at Rome, by those who resort there from all quarters. She was a mirror of the Catholic World, owing here orthodoxy to them; not the Sun, dispensing her own light to others, but the glass bringing their rays into a focus. See note at end of book iii.] A discussion of the subject may be seen in chap. xii. of Dr. Wordsworth’s St. Hippolytus and the Church of Rome. " (We know Schaff is a protestant. Irenaeus is a Catholic bishop. Irenaeus wrote very clearly. He wrote, if one didn’t agree with Rome because of her pre-eminent authority everywhere, then Irenaeus was writing against THEM. So we see Schaff introducing bias, trying to do damage control for all non Catholics who read Irenaeus. )
B:
Clements letter makes no suggestion at all that Rome is the chair of Peter or that the Corinthians contacted them for that reason.
Clement needs to remind people Rome is the chair of Peter? The world already knows it’s the chair of Peter.

Did Irenaeus from Smyrna need that reminder? NO. Did he write “Against Heresies” thinking nobody else knew that? NO. He was taught by men like Polycarp who was a disciple of St John. So when Irenaeus writes, it’s coming from a man who is only one man away from an apostle.

Irenaeus new Polycarp, and both men were from Smyrna. Polycarp was friends with Ignatius of Antioch, and both THOSE men were disciples of St John. Do you think Irenaeus would be partial to Antioch since that is the major see closest to him for much of his early life and that St Peter was also in Antioch?

Yet Irenaeus doesn’t say all must agree with Antioch, but he says all must agree with Rome. And Irenaeus says THAT is the apostolic tradition coming from Peter and Paul passed on by faithful bishops down to his (Irenaeus) day.

therefore, Corinth gave their case to Rome the chair of Peter, because they wanted a difinitive judgement.

(cont)
 
(cont)

Objective people will admit they can only speculate on why the Corinthians contacted the church in Rome, the rest will blindly assert their biased opinions.
Objective people present the information that is there and present logical conclusions based on what is known.

Nonobjective people by definition manipulate what is known, and insert bias.
B:
Primary:
  • Ignatius letter to Polycarp
  • Origen, Commentary on Mathew (12:9-12)
  • Paul of Samosata (Second biggest controversy in the Ante-Nicene church)
  • The Arian Controversy (Biggest controversy in the Ante-Nicene church)
  • Nicea, Canon 6
Re canon 6
csun.edu/~hcfll004/nicaea.html

where’s the issue?

how do the rest of your comments above, make your point?
B:
Secondary:
  • Variance in accepted books of Scripture
  • Variance in accepted doctrine
  • Cyprian, Unity of the Church
  • Constantine’s supremacy at Nicea
Nicea, Canon 6. And the obvious fact that those are the churches Ignatius felt compelled to give his final instruction and exhortation. His letter to the church in Rome was written for a completely different reason.
I printed canon 6 in the link above. I don’t see your point.

emperor Constantine called the council. That doesn’t mean the Church of Rome is diminished in any of its authority

Cyprian wrote twice. His first was very good. But he got his act wrapped around the axel with pope Stephen over rebaptizing heretics. Cyprian did an el-foldo on his position in his second revised version… Not a good moment for Cyprian.
It doesn’t mean, “Please oversee my episcopate in Antioch.” Jesus would oversee the church in Antioch until Polycarp assembles local bishops and they elect a new bishop to take Ignatius’ place. You are trying to create something that isn’t there.
Ignatius said to Rome, Jesus would oversee Antioch AND your regard.

What’s that mean connecting the oversight of Jesus AND Rome’s regard?

What’s Rome to do? Is Rome then to watchover Polycarp in his work of replacing Ignatius?
B:
Eusebius treats Rome and Antioch exactly the same in his history. Bishops of both churches are acknowledged as succeeding from Peter.
“Linus, whom he mentions in the Second Epistle to Timothy as his companion at Rome, was Peter’s successor in the episcopate of the church there” (E.H. 3:4:9)

“And at the same time Papias, bishop of the parish of Hierapolis, became well known, as did also Ignatius, who was chosen bishop of Antioch, second in succession to Peter, and whose fame is still celebrated by a great many.” (ibid 3:36:2)
Everybody knows Peter was in both places. When popes ordain bishops, and popes over the last 2000 years have ordained a bunch of bishops during their pontificate, are all these bishops then ALL popes as a result? No. Are they ALL successors to the pope who ordained them? No

Has Antioch EVER been listed first in the East? No Has it ever been equal to Rome? No
 
Your opinion of a person who far out qualifies yourself in matters of early ecclesiastical writings is of absolutely no consequence to me.

Clements letter makes no suggestion at all that Rome is the chair of Peter or that the Corinthians contacted them for that reason. It is crystal clear that Clement knew the church in Corinth personally and intimately. Objective people will admit they can only speculate on why the Corinthians contacted the church in Rome, the rest will blindly assert their biased opinions.

Primary:
  • Ignatius letter to Polycarp
  • Origen, Commentary on Mathew (12:9-12)
  • Paul of Samosata (Second biggest controversy in the Ante-Nicene church)
  • The Arian Controversy (Biggest controversy in the Ante-Nicene church)
  • Nicea, Canon 6
Secondary:
  • Variance in accepted books of Scripture
  • Variance in accepted doctrine
  • Cyprian, Unity of the Church
  • Constantine’s supremacy at Nicea
Nicea, Canon 6. And the obvious fact that those are the churches Ignatius felt compelled to give his final instruction and exhortation. His letter to the church in Rome was written for a completely different reason.

Because they asked them to. You can only speculate.

Did you not read my last post?? Ignatius DID write to a bishop much closer to him, and he EXPLICITLY asked him to handle the affairs of his episcopate. He did not ask Rome to do that, he only asked for their prayers.

It doesn’t mean, “Please oversee my episcopate in Antioch.” Jesus would oversee the church in Antioch until Polycarp assembles local bishops and they elect a new bishop to take Ignatius’ place. You are trying to create something that isn’t there.

Eusebius treats Rome and Antioch exactly the same in his history. Bishops of both churches are acknowledged as succeeding from Peter.

“Linus, whom he mentions in the Second Epistle to Timothy as his companion at Rome, was Peter’s successor in the episcopate of the church there” (E.H. 3:4:9)

“And at the same time Papias, bishop of the parish of Hierapolis, became well known, as did also Ignatius, who was chosen bishop of Antioch, second in succession to Peter, and whose fame is still celebrated by a great many.” (ibid 3:36:2)
Brian I have noticed you have dodged my challenge to you.These are your own words:

So there is nothing to tie Rome to universal jurisdiction in the early church except fare-reaching conjectures and dishonest manipulation of primary sources.

I am asking you to show me the empirical evidence the RCC has manipulated primary sources? Show me your evidence they have been manipulated? You made the charge,now back it up!
 
You know, I was hoping Brian would do us the courtesy to answer the questions put forth to him instead of dodging them and in response spewing misinformation, anti-Catholic falsehoods, and plain old name calling. But I guess if your position is built out of a house of cards, all you can do is divert the issue. It is obvious that Brian has a chip on his shoulders regarding the Beautiful Catholic Faith and deserves no more of my time. I shake the dust from my feet against him.
Why should he answer questions that you already know the answer? Your point seems unnecessary, IMO.

Can you disprove His statements about the assumption of Mary?
 
Pure conjecture? Tell me which Apostle mentioned the canon of the NT or even compiling a single book to be called the Bible?
Conjecture on who’s part?

Asking about the apostles mentioning the canon or about compiling a single book is ‘barking up the wrong tree’, IMO.
 
If you are going to assert apostolic origin for doctrines that are not found in the Bible, then you are going to have to prove it by getting specific.
Originally from Brian quoted by Nicea

[SIGN]Is it possible that the apostles taught essential doctrine that does not appear in the canon? Yes. Did they? Not that I can see. [/SIGN]

Are you sure Brian’s assering what you say he’s asserting? Am I missing something here?
 
If you know the early Church pretty well then tell me where is the early Church in which Jesus built and promised the gates of hell would not prevail against her? did Jesus kept His promise or not?
Jesus can’t lie. We can misunderstand. Jesus will keep His promise and we will often misunderstand or misapply what He exactly is promising.

The church is made up of all true believers in Jesus as God/Savior. It is not, IMO, one of the named churches we see and that includes the Catholic Church. The church Jesus founded is universal in that includes all who believe not matter how old, what color the skin, what sin is in the past, etc.
 
Jesus can’t lie. We can misunderstand. Jesus will keep His promise and we will often misunderstand or misapply what He exactly is promising.

The church is made up of all true believers in Jesus as God/Savior. It is not, IMO, one of the named churches we see and that includes the Catholic Church. The church Jesus founded is universal in that includes all who believe not matter how old, what color the skin, what sin is in the past, etc.
Are or Is your conclusion/s supported by the Bible?
 
Originally from Brian quoted by Nicea

[SIGN]Is it possible that the apostles taught essential doctrine that does not appear in the canon? Yes. Did they? Not that I can see. [/SIGN]

Are you sure Brian’s assering what you say he’s asserting? Am I missing something here?
Hey Doki? How is life treating you and your loved ones? Actually my entire point to Brian is that since we do not have a single shred of evidence the Apostles ever mentioned a canon, I want to know why he accepts it? It is not to slam his beliefs, I simply asked him to tell me why he accepts it? All he did was provide a website giving the development of the canon,which I am very familiar with and do not need reminders.
 
Others have said that holy men decided on the Cannon of Scriptures but when you ask who were these holy men, they run out the door.
Ask me and I’ll direct you to the following:

1 Corinthians 3:

4 For when one says, “I am of Paul,” and another, “I am of Apollos,” are you not carnal?
5 ¶ Who then is Paul, and who is Apollos, but ministers through whom you believed, as the Lord gave to each one?
6 I planted, Apollos watered, but God gave the increase.
7 So then neither he who plants is anything, nor he who waters, but God who gives the increase. (God is all important and only important)
8 Now he who plants and he who waters are one, and each one will receive his own reward according to his own labor.

Seems Paul says when we say we’re of this church or that church and our church is the best, we are carnal.

Seems Paul says that those who water or those who plant or those who put the canon together are nothing, but God who inspires it all to be done is everything.
 
Brian, what is your response to the OP below:

Based on my last thread regarding the non-Catholic consensus of what sola scriptura is, and is not, I have concluded that the bible, as per sola scriptura advocates, is the Christians only source of divine authority via private interpretation, and that all Christians, as per the practice of sola scriptura, must defer to the authority of the bible alone via private interpretation, (with the exception of one SS advocate) - as opposed to deferring to the authority of the Catholic Church or any other Protestant Church for that matter. I am told that All have the right to read the bible (with which I agree, to a point…) - as it has been written, and discern truth for themselves via private interpretation: no church Bishop or Pastor (regardless of church affiliation) - is needed to further expound that which has been expounded by the Spirit of Christ in the Prophets and the Apostles.

Where is this taught in the bible??? 2 Timothy 3 does not teach this…
You’re inaccurate understanding of SS is not found in the Bible.
 

;7230730]You’re inaccurate understanding of SS is not found in the Bible./]

Instead of showing me where my interpretation of SS is flawed, you choose to say: You’re inaccurate understanding of SS is not found in the Bible. A little help since I clearly am still at a loss as to what SS is!!! I sure wish I could find it spelled out in the bible somewhere.

I just asked, via thread what SS was to SS advocates…what the consensus was among SS advocates and these are the responses:
  1. The bible is the Christians final authority and SS is the practice by which the bible can be understood, via private interpretation; no church teachers necessary.
Or
  1. The bible is the final authority and SS is the practice by which the bible can be understood, but private interpretation is frowned upon; deference to church leaders is necessary and some tradition is embraced but I am never told what that catholic tradition is.
Dok, which one is is it so that we can move on to the OP???
 
Seems Paul says when we say we’re of this church or that church and our church is the best, we are carnal.

Seems Paul says that those who water or those who plant or those who put the canon together are nothing, but God who inspires it all to be done is everything.
St.Paul does not say these persons are nothing,St.Paul clearly states that these men areone.And if these men are one they are the same in doctrine. Which is not the case in the unathorized church. St.Paul tells us what shows these person’s carnality and is thier jelousy and strife, which is the main ingredient of protestant churches.
 
Why should he answer questions that you already know the answer? Your point seems unnecessary, IMO.

Can you disprove His statements about the assumption of Mary?
Please go back and read the thread. you will see where I answered his questions and asked him questions. Instead all I did get was him dodging them and instead responded by spewing misinformation, anti-Catholic falsehoods, and name calling.
 
Brian I have noticed you have dodged my challenge to you.These are your own words:

So there is nothing to tie Rome to universal jurisdiction in the early church except fare-reaching conjectures and dishonest manipulation of primary sources.

I am asking you to show me the empirical evidence the RCC has manipulated primary sources? Show me your evidence they have been manipulated? You made the charge,now back it up!
Where did I say the RCC manipulated primary sources? Steve b manipulated the quote he posted from Irenaeus (Schaff translation) and that was demonstrated in the discussion. It’s a common practice among Catholic apologists; references are either stripped of context, tampered with, or both.
 
Please go back and read the thread. you will see where I answered his questions and asked him questions. Instead all I did get was him dodging them and instead responded by spewing misinformation, anti-Catholic falsehoods, and name calling.
Please remind me of the question you asked (I might have missed it) and the supposed name calling and spewing of misinformation?
 
Jesus can’t lie. We can misunderstand. Jesus will keep His promise and we will often misunderstand or misapply what He exactly is promising.

The church is made up of all true believers in Jesus as God/Savior. It is not, IMO, one of the named churches we see and that includes the Catholic Church. The church Jesus founded is universal in that includes all who believe not matter how old, what color the skin, what sin is in the past, etc.
These true believers who were they from Jesus to today?
 
Specifically, which of my comments are you questioning?
he church is made up of all true believers in Jesus as God/Savior. It is not, IMO, one of the named churches we see and that includes the Catholic Church. The church Jesus founded is universal in that includes all who believe not matter how old, what color the skin, what sin is in the past, etc.
 
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