So you’re saying that we can derive
(2a) Necessarily, an absolutely certain belief is true.
from
(2) An absolutely certain belief cannot possibly be false.
But I am saying that either 2a and 2 are semantically identical – they mean the same thing – or you cannot derive 2 from 2a. Why can’t you derive it? Because, in this case, 2 means “An absolutely certain belief is such that the proposition believed is necessarily true.” But in 2a, the content of the belief just happens to be true.
This is what is called a scope fallacy, in modal logic.
A comparison: Suppose we agree that “Necessarily, everything I know is true.” This is a true statement, because knowledge entails truth. But it does not follow logically that “Everything that I know is necessarily true.” Many things that I know could have been false, if the world was different.
Maybe I’m missing something, but I think you’re making a logical error here.
Oh, and don’t worry about taking up too much of my time. I study philosophy for a living, so I like this stuff.