J
JRRTFAN
Guest
I’m with you. I know all the arguments, Jerome closer to the origin, etc. But I find it hard to argue that the DRC (I’ve never seen a non-Challoner Douay) is more accurate to the Greek and Hebrew than a modern formal equivalence version like the RSV or ESV.Ok for starters, the Vulgate , during it’s 1000 years from Jerome to the D/R was updated many times. Second, the Greek used in NT times was not the same as the Greek in Jeromes time, it had changed somewhat. Third, the Vulgate is itself a translation from Hebrew and Greek to Latin, that makes the D/R a translation of a translation. Fourth, the D/R itself has been updated several times in it’s 400 years. Fifth, the English Language has not stood still in the last 400 years. Sixth, there is a difference between UK English and North American English.
My thoughts, just for starters.
May I repeat myself? Easy to say, hard to prove.