Who is 'King of Kings and Lord of Lords?

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The Lord’s Prayer tells us, that it is our Father in heaven’s kingdom that is coming. Isaiah 44:6 tells us that the first figure in this verse, is the King of Israel. In the book of Revelation, John witnessed a figure on the throne (chpt 4 says that this figure is the creator), and chpt 5, has Jesus (as the Lamb of God) taking the sealed book out of the hand of He who sat on the throne. We then see, that later in this book, The Lord God Almighty and The Lamb are sitting on the throne.

We know that the unbelievers at the time of Jesus’ crucifixion, called Jesus, the king of the Jews. We also know, that they were laughing at (scorning) Him when they said this.

We know that Jesus is both **The Lord of Hosts **and The Lamb, by which the world was to be redeemed (for those that believe upon Him, and follow His teachings). 🤷
 
The Kingdom of God, on earth and in Heaven, belongs to Jesus now (Matthew 16:28). All things are under Him (Ephesians 1:22). After He judges the world on Judgment Day He will turn the Kingdom back over to the Father (1 Corinthians 15:24). So Jesus is the King of kings and Lord of lords.:bowdown:
 
“Who is 'King of Kings and Lord of Lords?”

1 Timothy 6:15-16
 
I don’t think that, that is the meaning of 1 Timothy 6:15-16
What is the meaning? And how do we reconcile 1 Tim 6:15-16 with Rev. 17:14?

*…they will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings… *

God bless
 
I don’t think that, that is the meaning of 1 Timothy 6:15-16
Jesus is God. That verse doesn’t say the Father. But this one does:

“But each in his own turn: Christ, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him. Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.” (1 Corinthians 15:23-24)
 
What is the meaning? And how do we reconcile 1 Tim 6:15-16 with Rev. 17:14?

…they will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings

God bless
Well, Timothy would have to be regarded as more authoritive, since Revelation declares itself to be a book of signs and symbols.

Timothy provides attributes of the Most High that could be said of no lamb.
 
What is the meaning? And how do we reconcile 1 Tim 6:15-16 with Rev. 17:14?

…they will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings

God bless
Or you can take the shortcut! 😛 As RC said, you have to harmonize all the relevant verses. Of course, that’s what the Catholic Church has been doing for 2000 years!
 
Well, Timothy would have to be regarded as more authoritive, since Revelation declares itself to be a book of signs and symbols.

Timothy provides attributes of the Most High that could be said of no lamb.
Wait though, isn’t all scripture profitable for teaching, correction, and training in righteousness? 2 Tim 3:16

Forgive me for being slow, I have never ran across the idea of parts of Scripture being more authoritative than others. 😊

So Revelation is incorrect when it refers to Christ as the Lord of Lords and King of Kings?

Do you believe Revelation was inspired by God and inerrant?

God bless
 
Or you can take the shortcut! 😛 As RC said, you have to harmonize all the relevant verses. Of course, that’s what the Catholic Church has been doing for 2000 years!
Well, the verse that states that Revelation is a book of signs and symbols is relevant…
 
What is the meaning? And how do we reconcile 1 Tim 6:15-16 with Rev. 17:14?

…they will make war on the Lamb, and the Lamb will conquer them, for he is Lord of lords and King of kings

God bless
I knew of these verses before I made this post. This is why I created the question. Isaiah 44:6 seems to lead in the direction, that The Lord God Almighty is ‘The King’ of The Kingdom as does The Lord’s Prayer, and Rev chpt 4. I am weel aware, that much of the N/T puts Jesus in this role, and yet, He never personally glorified Himself, but rather glorified His Father (no one good but God). I am still confused. I really appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut. Thanks. 🙂
 
Well, the verse that states that Revelation is a book of signs and symbols is relevant…
Yes it is very relevant. I try to tell that to people who gamble their eternal lives that the Catholic Church is the “Whore of Babylon”! But the symbol is the Lamb. And we all know who the Lamb is, right? Its certainly not the Father! Anyway, the other verses I gave explicitly state that the Kingdom of God belongs to Jesus now, so He is the King of kings.
 
I knew of these verses before I made this post. This is why I created the question. Isaiah 44:6 seems to lead in the direction, that The Lord God Almighty is ‘The King’ of The Kingdom as does The Lord’s Prayer, and Rev chpt 4. I am weel aware, that much of the N/T puts Jesus in this role, and yet, He never personally glorified Himself, but rather glorified His Father (no one good but God). I am still confused. I really appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut. Thanks. 🙂
If you asked Jesus he would probably say that his father is, God Almighty, King of Kings and Lord of Lords…

See Revelation 19:16 the whole passage is very colorful, the name is written of the thigh.
 
If you asked Jesus he would probably say that his father is, God Almighty, King of Kings and Lord of Lords…

See Revelation 19:16 the whole passage is very colorful, the name is written of the thigh.
Again, I am also aware of Rev 19:16. In Acts, we are told that Jesus is ‘one’ figure. I assume, that He was begotten as The Lord of Hosts first (created above the angels) and then changed into man (lower than the angels). Jesus also mentioned, that He was looking forward to returning to the glory that He had before the world was. Who is on the throne in Rev chpt 4? 🙂 🤷
 
Yes it is very relevant. I try to tell that to people who gamble their eternal lives that the Catholic Church is the “Whore of Babylon”! But the symbol is the Lamb. And we all know who the Lamb is, right? Its certainly not the Father! Anyway, the other verses I gave explicitly state that the Kingdom of God belongs to Jesus now, so He is the King of kings.
The great name of God is being used as a symbol, and being attributed to a symbol, the lamb. Revelation has may complex symbol attributions, it doesn’t seem to be prophecy, it is much more like Kabbalah.
 
If you asked Jesus he would probably say that his father is, God Almighty, King of Kings and Lord of Lords…

See Revelation 19:16 the whole passage is very colorful, the name is written of the thigh.
Revelation 19:16 is referring to the “Word of God” - Jesus Christ. How many proofs do you need?
 
I assume, that He was begotten as The Lord of Hosts first (created above the angels) and then changed into man (lower than the angels). Who is on the throne in Rev chpt 4? 🙂 🤷
I don’t believe that Revelation can be interpreted very well. You are blessed for keeping the words of Revelation. They are meant to be interpreted by Jewish mystics, I think.
 
Revelation 19:16 is referring to the “Word of God” - Jesus Christ. How many proofs do you need?
Jesus also stated, “…and the Word that ye hear is not mine, but the Father’s that sent me.” In other words (mine), are BOTH Jesus and His Father, The Word? 🙂
 
Jesus also stated, “…and the Word that ye hear is not mine, but the Father’s that sent me.” In other words (mine), are BOTH Jesus and His Father, The Word? 🙂
No, “The Word became flesh.” (John 1:14)
 
Revelation 19:16 is referring to the “Word of God” - Jesus Christ. How many proofs do you need?
You are completely ignoring 1 Timothy 6:15-16.

Ministers are admonished not to write sermons based on Revelation until late in their career.
 
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