Who is the One Jesus said is the ONLY true God?

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theMadJW said:
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HarryStotle:
Our Church never used the name Jehovah.

It is based upon a copyist error…
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So the story goes.
Many Hebrew Scholars believe those vowels correct: Yehowah.
English often drops the “J”.
In ANY event “LORD” is NOT His (not ‘Their’) Name.

Michael returns to a remote Pacific Island he had once visited decades ago,
to see friends he had once met there.
Upon landing, the natives run out, shouting “Mukkil, Mukkil!”

Was he honored- or offended- that they didn’t pronounce his name correctly?
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The third commandment:
You shall not take the name of the Lord your God in vain, for the Lord will not hold him guiltless who takes His name in vain. (Ex 20:2-17)
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I would suppose that a commandment not to take the Lord’s name in vain, presupposes that those so instructed actually knew what that name was, no?

I mean if Jehovah happened NOT to really be God’s name, an Israelite wouldn’t actually be taking God’s name in vain if he said it, now would he?
 
So…then, do you think Jesus Christ has existed from the beginning, or is He a mere creature, like us?

And do we worship Him, or no?
 
Hey Harry, what do you think of this?

The Catholic Encyclopedia in 1913, Vol. VIII, page 329 admits: “Jehovah, the proper name of God in the Old Testament; hence the Jews called it the name by excellence, the great name, the only name.”
 
“[Matt. 28:19] proves only that there are the three subjects named,…but it does not prove, by itself, that all the three belong necessarily to the divine nature, and possess equal divine honor…This text, taken by itself, would not prove decisively either the personality of the three subjects mentioned, or their equality or divinity” (McClintock and Strong, Cyclopedia of Biblical, Theological and Ecclesiastical Literature, 1987, Vol. X, p. 552).

The expression “in the name of” really means “by the authority of” or “recognizing the position of.” Being baptized “in the name of the Father,” means accepting without question the sovereignty of God in our lives. Baptism “in the name of the Son,” means accepting Jesus as Redeemer, Exemplar, and King. And baptism “in the name of the holy spirit,” involves relying on the spirit and submitting to its power.
 
theMadJW said:
Thistle- we and many OTHERS have mistaken what GOD’S prophecies mean.

That is off topic, and looks like you are attempting to divert.

ARE you?
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Not at all. That poster is a JW and is saying the Catholic Church is wrong about the Holy Trinity. I am merely pointing out that JW is a false religion so who is he to say that.
 
theMadJW said:
It’s Jehovah- but I thought your church didn’t use it anymore; it didn’t when I went.
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HarryStotle said:
It is based upon a copyist error transcribing the name of Yahweh from the Old Testament. The diacritical marks (vowels) used by the Hebrew writers around the name of God, יהוה were only meant to be spoken when saying the Hebrew word for LORD.
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Harry this should not be news to JW’s as it is well documented in their 1971 publication “Aid to Bible Understanding”. As a mater of fact, page 885 gives credit for accomplishing this task to a Spanish monk in the 13th century.

Peace!!!
 
nickhawaii said:
Hey Harry, what do you think of this?

The Catholic Encyclopedia in 1913, Vol. VIII, page 329 admits: “Jehovah, the proper name of God in the Old Testament; hence the Jews called it the name by excellence, the great name, the only name.”
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The article was written prior to a great deal of scholarship since and tries to hold a position somewhere in the middle of extremes. It isn’t theologically binding but tries to accurately show the state of scholarship at the time.

What do you make of the fact that St. Jerome mentions the ten divine names used in the Old Testament as references (and placeholders) for God, but makes no mention of Jehovah?
An explanation of the ten names given to God in the Hebrew Scriptures. The ten names are El, Elohim, Sabaôth, Eliôn, Asher yeheyeh (Exodus 3:14,) Adonai, Jah, the tetragram JHVH, and Shaddai. Written at Rome 384 A.D.
CHURCH FATHERS: Letter 25 (Jerome)
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The most sensible explanation is that when diacritical vowel markings were introduced into written Hebrew, the word for LORD, Adonai, was most frequently spoken in place of the divine name since it was forbidden to use the sacred Tetragrammaton, YHVH or YHWH, so perhaps a version of Yehovah or Jehovah became widely used in place of Adonai by Hebrew speakers, but that only proves that Jehovah was a placeholder to be used in place of the divine name and could not have been the actual divine name precisely because it was so used.
 
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adf417 said:
Harry this should not be news to JW’s as it is well documented in their 1971 publication “Aid to Bible Understanding”. As a mater of fact, page 885 gives credit for accomplishing this task to a Spanish monk in the 13th century.
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So a monk inventing a name in the 13th century gives credibility to a claim that Jehovah is THE divine name?

No mention of Jehovah in ancient texts, but I suppose not having any ancient Jewish Levitical priests around to tell us how they would have spoken the divine name in the Temple is convenient for those making the claim for Jehovah.

I’ll go with Jerome, for now, and he says nothing of the name and is careful to note “the tetragram JHVH,” which would be the Latin transliteration of יהוה.
 
What about when the Lord comes with the two angels and visits Abraham? Abraham speaks with Him about not destroying all the people of Sodom and Gomorah, the Lord goes on His way and the two angels go on to warn Lot.

When the destruction happens, we are told that:
24 Then the LORD rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;
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So the Lord who is walking and talking with Abraham is now calling down fire from the Lord who is in Heaven.

Justin Martyr speaks of this in his Dialogue with Trypho (Chapters 55-68)

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/01285.htm
Justin: (After another pause.) And now have you not perceived, my friends, that one of the three, who is both God and Lord, and ministers to Him who is in the heavens, is Lord of the two angels? For when [the angels] proceeded to Sodom, He remained behind, and communed with Abraham in the words recorded by Moses; and when He departed after the conversation, Abraham went back to his place. And when he came [to Sodom], the two angels no longer conversed with Lot, but Himself, as the Scripture makes evident; and He is the Lord who received commission from the Lord who [remains] in the heavens, i.e., the Maker of all things, to inflict upon Sodom and Gomorrha the [judgments] which the Scripture describes in these terms: ‘The Lord rained down upon Sodom and Gomorrha sulphur and fire from the Lord out of heaven.’
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Basically, we have the Lord who is sent (The Son) walking and talking with Abraham and then calling down fire (Holy Spirit) from the Lord who is in Heaven(The Father).
 
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The greek “ego eimi” is truthfully translated as " I WAS" here.
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Why is eimi “truthfully translated” as “was”, when eimi is a present-tense verb? Why wouldn’t John 8:58 use a past-tense verb?

Besides, what do you make of Jesus’ claim to have existed before Abraham?
 
HarryStotle said:
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adf417:
Harry this should not be news to JW’s as it is well documented in their 1971 publication “Aid to Bible Understanding”. As a mater of fact, page 885 gives credit for accomplishing this task to a Spanish monk in the 13th century.
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So a monk inventing a name in the 13th century gives credibility to a claim that Jehovah is THE divine name?

No mention of Jehovah in ancient texts, but I suppose not having any ancient Jewish Levitical priests around to tell us how they would have spoken the divine name in the Temple is convenient for those making the claim for Jehovah.

I’ll go with Jerome, for now, and he says nothing of the name and is careful to note “the tetragram JHVH,” which would be the Latin transliteration of יהוה.
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Im with you!

The above ref book goes on to say “Since certainity of pronunciation is not now attainable…”

Makes one wonder why they give so much credence to the name Jehovah?

Peace!!!
 
HarryStotle said:
No mention of Jehovah in ancient texts,
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Koine Grewek, at THAT time, didn’t have a version of God’s Name- so the Jews wrote it in Hebrew in this early Septuagint, the version Jesus read from.

Only a Trinitrarian would think he read “LORD” instead of “Jehovah/Yehovah”…
 
Guys, stop arguing with a heretic. He’s been corrected, he ignores the truth. He’s made his choices. Pray for him, arguing won’t go anywhere.
 
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