H
Hodos
Guest
Again, you are making an assumption that Matthew didn’t read or write in Greek. Considering he frequently quotes from the Septuagint and was a publican, the possibility is sound that he did. Greek was the lingua franca in much of that part of the world, and as we know the gospel was preached within weeks (Pentecost) to Hellenized Jews. Also, that depends on your dating of Matthew, which is not a settled matter by any stretch of the imagination. I find it interesting though that whenever arguing for this viewpoint, the RC apologist is forced to resort to make arguments that remove the inspiration of the Holy Spirit in the authorship of the Gospel of Matthew and sets them up for attacks against the efficacy and accuracy of scripture from a textual critical standpoint. Essentially, you end up adopting Erhmanesque modes of argumentation.Point: The words were much later - decades later - written in Greek. But they were SPOKEN in Aramaic. Huge difference that only the Church can explain with authority.
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