J
Jay53
Guest
OK. So Joseph Smith only married and had sexual intercourse with single women? What was God’s purpose in having these marriages and physical relationships? Was the test “Do you love me more than your fidelity to your wife?” and to Emma, “Do you love me more than your husband’s fidelity? Will you allow your husband to engage in a sacred physical union with another woman?” I guess I have the same problem believing that God would create this kind of test when he clearly set up marriage between one man and one woman?Jay53,
I disagree that there were adulterous relationships involved. Some of the “spiritual sealings” to women were not involving a physical relationship. That is what I meant by the doctrine getting revealed a little at a time about what it meant to have a “sealing ordinance” done involving connecting families.
The already married women that he subsequently also married and was sealed to was only for connecting the families? Where is the “test of faith” in that? And how does that not extrapolate then for sealing every family with every other family on the planet? Or is that what you meant by imperfect? Joseph wasn’t really supposed to be doing the sealings this way - he just didn’t understand or didn’t have the full revelation?
OK. I’ll have to take your word for it until someone proves otherwise.I think he was moving forward with what he had been commanded but yet still figuring out the details of what God was revealing about the “sealing” ordinance. So that is why other men could allow their wife to be “sealed” to Joseph Smith. They were viewing the ordinance as making one big family of God–not of entitling an adulterous relationship, and Joseph Smith didn’t have those kinds of relationships with married women.