Why Are There 2 Creations

  • Thread starter Thread starter Shai22
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
IF satan did not approach Eve and deceive her, the world would still be Perfect.

Had Eve trusted in GOD, she would not have been deceived.

Deceit came first (satan) then the disobedience.

the snake is satan.
Satan did not approach Eve. A clever serpent did. THere is little in the story to suggest that the Sepent is a fallen angel or Satan.
 
Perhaps you are forgetting that satan can appear in any form he wants. snakes, angle of light, children, priests, popes, nuns, rabbis.
 
Perhaps you are forgetting that satan can appear in any form he wants. snakes, angle of light, children, priests, popes, nuns, rabbis.
Which perspective are you saying this (2 Creation stories) from? Is it from a Dualist’s point? Two independent, opposite and conflicting forces at work that separated the moral from the immoral?

On a side note, just so we know, are you Catholic?
 
Which perspective are you saying this (2 Creation stories) from? Is it from a Dualist’s point? Two independent, opposite and conflicting forces at work that separated the moral from the immoral?

It is GOD’S perspective regarding the 2 creations.

On a side note, just so we know, are you Catholic?

I am not part of any organized religion. I follow GOD directly.
 
Satan did no such thing!
Man did, through succumbing to satan’s temptations. But the story of the Fall is not a second creation-story. It is the story of how the world that WAS created went south. There’s a big difference!

Revelations 12:9 The huge dragon was thrown out, the ancient serpent named the devil,or satan that deceived the whole world. He was thrown down to earth, and all his angels with him.

satan created imperfection through deceit.

GOD is perfect in all HE is and does. He is incapable of creating imperfection.
 
But there are contradictions and they focus on different aspects of Creation. It seems likely that they are written by two different authors.
Where are the contradictions?
Not in the Hebrew text anyway. The word “toledoth” in Gen 2:4 (primary meaning: “line of descendants”) reflects not on what has previously been written, but what is written after it, as the primary meaning of the word is not that of geneaology as we know it (us searching for our roots - looking back in time), but the opposite - a list of the “descendants” of the subject.
Furthermore, the sentence is…argh, what’s it called in English?? A sentence that is without a finite verb, anyway. Which means that we can’t see from the sentence whether it is perfect, present or future tense.

As previously stated, the use of the word “toledoth” requires that we view the following as present or future tense. And therefore, since it does not point back to chap. 1, but forward, there is no longer two seperate stories, and no contradictions.
The fact that it’s written slightly different than chap 1 does not neccessarily indicate a second author of. Hebrew is renowned/infamous for saying the same thing in different succeeding ways. Just read the Psalms to ascertain that…
 
Perhaps you are forgetting that satan can appear in any form he wants. snakes, angle of light, children, priests, popes, nuns, rabbis.
I’ll assume for the sake of discussion that is true. It still does not address the fact that nothing in the Genesis story suggests that the serpent is Satan.
 
Where are the contradictions?
Not in the Hebrew text anyway. The word “toledoth” in Gen 2:4 (primary meaning: “line of descendants”) reflects not on what has previously been written, but what is written after it, as the primary meaning of the word is not that of geneaology as we know it (us searching for our roots - looking back in time), but the opposite - a list of the “descendants” of the subject.
Furthermore, the sentence is…argh, what’s it called in English?? A sentence that is without a finite verb, anyway. Which means that we can’t see from the sentence whether it is perfect, present or future tense.

As previously stated, the use of the word “toledoth” requires that we view the following as present or future tense. And therefore, since it does not point back to chap. 1, but forward, there is no longer two seperate stories, and no contradictions.
The fact that it’s written slightly different than chap 1 does not neccessarily indicate a second author of. Hebrew is renowned/infamous for saying the same thing in different succeeding ways. Just read the Psalms to ascertain that…
Chapter two has trees appearing after man. The issue of rain I belief is treated differently. The creation of man and woman at the same time in chapter 1 vs. seperate creations in Chapter 2.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top