guanophore:
If you think that the Eucharist is not scriptural, then it seems essential that you find another way to interpret these passages. Perhaps dispense is not the best word?
The Eucharist is scriptural as inaugurated by Christ at the last supper.
With that said, I don’t believe in the “real presence” of Christ in the elements, as the RCC teaches, but in a “remembrance of me,” as Jesus, and Paul teach (Lk 22; 1 Cor 11).
I believe that the events of John 6—events which took place well before the last supper—should not be connected with the last supper. Using one event to explain the other event distorts both events.
John 6 is about “eternal life,” not the Eucharist.
Jn 6:26-51 is a plain language teaching; vv52-58 is a figurative language teaching of the plain language teaching.
Coming, seeing, and believing are equated with slaking of hunger, slaking of thirst, and receiving eternal life.
6:40, and 54 are parallel verses; v40 is plain language, v54 is figurative language. Lay them side-by-side and one sees this:
…everyone who <> He who
beholds the Son <> eats My flesh
and <> and
believes in Him <> drinks My blood
may have eternal life <> has eternal life,
and <> and
I Myself will raise him up <> I will raise him
On the last day <> on the last day.
When the apostles were asked if they also wanted to leave, Peter responded, “…You have
words of eternal Life….We have
believed [Jesus’ words], and [by that belief in His words have] come to know that you are the Holy One of God.”
words of eternal life is a genitive of possession; IOW, the words, when believed, possess eternal life (cf Jn 5:24; 6:63; 12:49ff; 17:8).
So, Peter got it.
He did not say, “we have come to know you have flesh and blood of eternal life….” It’s the plain teaching of His
words, when believed, that impart eternal life.
Catholics also erroneously cite 1 Cor 11:27ff as support for the physical presence of Christ in the Eucharist, but they must take the verses out of context to do so.
The context of 1 Cor 11:27ff begins a conclusion of the greater context of the passage as indicated by the word
hōsteh—Therefore in the English; therefore, the context begins in v17.
Reading the context from v17, one understands that the “body” that is not being
judged rightly is the
Church, or the
body of believers (cf 10:16, and read vv12ff in the very next chapter for a fuller explanation of the church as
the body of Christ).
Paul is not correcting the Corinthian Church for not
rightly judging the body of Christ in the elements (because Paul knows no such thing); Paul is warning them for
not rightly judging that it is their fellow believers who are are the true body of Christ; that is the unworthy manner that is being spoken of; the malefaction that makes them guilty of the body and blood of the Lord, and that has caused many of them to be weak, sick, and dead, is their lack of respect, and mistreating of one another (cf Rom 12:10, 16; 13:8; 14:13, 19, and all of the “one another” passages).
That they were divided, and quarrling, and squabbling with one another is the context of the whole letter (cf 1 Cor 1:10).
But that’s another topic; go to thread link RNRobert provided above, and you’ll see what I’m talking about.