"Why are there so many different Christian interpretations? If all Christians have th

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The Eucharist is scriptural as inaugurated by Christ at the last supper.

With that said, I don’t believe in the “real presence” of Christ in the elements, as the RCC teaches, but in a “remembrance of me,” as Jesus, and Paul teach (Lk 22; 1 Cor 11).

…Paul is not correcting the Corinthian Church for not rightly judging the body of Christ in the elements (because Paul knows no such thing)…
Ok, I am confused…

You are saying that Paul does not believe in the real presence based on this passage? I would like to know what you mean when you say “Paul knows no such thing”. What was it that Paul received from the Lord? I think what is written here is the liturgy of the early church, which is still preserved today in the Mass.

1 Cor 11:23-26

23 For I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread, 24 and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.” 25 In the same way also the cup, after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.” 26 For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.
RSV
Catholics also erroneously cite 1 Cor 11:27ff as support for the physical presence of Christ in the Eucharist, but they must take the verses out of context to do so.

The context of 1 Cor 11:27ff begins a conclusion of the greater context of the passage as indicated by the word hōsteh—Therefore in the English; therefore, the context begins in v17

Reading the context from v17, one understands that the “body” that is not being judged rightly is the Church, or the body of believers (cf 10:16, and read vv12ff in the very next chapter for a fuller explanation of the church as the body of Christ).

Paul is not correcting the Corinthian Church for not rightly judging the body of Christ in the elements (because Paul knows no such thing); Paul is warning them for not rightly judging that it is their fellow believers who are are the true body of Christ; that is the unworthy manner that is being spoken of; the malefaction that makes them guilty of the body and blood of the Lord, and that has caused many of them to be weak, sick, and dead, is their lack of respect, and mistreating of one another (cf Rom 12:10, 16; 13:8; 14:13, 19, and all of the “one another” passages).

But that’s another topic; go to thread link RNRobert provided above, and you’ll see what I’m talking about.
I will try to find this other thread. It seems to me plain that the context of the passages about eating the body and blood of the Lord are placed in the context of the celebration of holy eucharist. Another puzzlement I have, why is it so important for Protestants to find ways to make this passage mean something other than what it says? If the reader to admit that Jesus is really referring to his own body, and his own blood, what would the implications be? I can’t see any other reason that so many people left Jesus at that time. Clearly, it was a hard saying for the Apostles also. They wanted to run away too! Peter thought about it, and realized there was no where to run…
 
Ok, I am confused…
Read Exodus 12 1:19 … The Passover Ritual Prescribed. This is really how it all began, the use of an unblemished lamb, the need to use the blood on the doorposts and the requirement to **eat **the flesh of the lamb. Also none of it should be kept … if not eaten then burned it was holy sacrifice. This ties in with John 1:29 when John the Bapist cries out “Behold the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world”.

Coincidence … who is the true, unblemished and eternal Lamb.

This is the Old Testament pre-figurement of the Eucharist. Check the other thread but make sure you read the Exodus chapter and the vese from John 1.
 
I play the organ at a Methodist Church when needed and the minister there said that the Methodist Church now believes the Eucharist to be more than just a symbol but not as far as the Catholic Church believes. He couldn’t give me a good answer as to what the Eucharist would be. It’s not a symbol. There is something more than that there but not the Transubstantiation that we believe. I don’t think that the minister really knows because I kept trying to figure it out with him very respectfully but curiously.

Interesting.
 
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guanophore:
Ok, I am confused…

You are saying that Paul does not believe in the real presence based on this passage? I would like to know what you mean when you say “Paul knows no such thing”. What was it that Paul received from the Lord? I think what is written here is the liturgy of the early church, which is still preserved today in the Mass.

1 Cor 11:23-26

23 For I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread, 24 and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, “This is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.” 25 In the same way also the cup, after supper, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.” 26 For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes.
RSV
In the passage you post above, Paul repeats to the Corinthians what he received from the Lord concerning the Last Supper (cf Lk 22:19ff); where does Paul, or the Lord, assert “real presence,” in what Paul delivered to the Corinthians?
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guanophore:
I will try to find this other thread. It seems to me plain that the context of the passages about eating the body and blood of the Lord are placed in the context of the celebration of holy eucharist.
I’ll explain it again.

The context is the church’s gathering together to eat the Lord’s supper, but, Paul says, for many, the Lord’s supper is merely a pretext for the gathering. They the many] are gathering only to scarf down as much food as they can eat, while getting as drunk as they can get, and leaving little, or nothing for those who have nothing (1 Cor 11:17-19).

In so doing, Paul says, they despise the Church of God—the body of Christ—and put to shame those brethren who have nothing (vv20-22).

Paul says that those who partake of the Eucharist in such an unworthy manner—using the pretext of the Lord’s supper to scarf all the food, get drunk, and leave nothing for those who have nothing—are guilty of the body and blood of the Lord (1 Cor 11:27-28; cf Heb 10:29). Thus, he warns them to examine their behavior before they partake of the Eucharist in such a manner.

For, Paul says, the one who partakes of the Eucharist in the unworthy manner described in vv17-21, eats and drinks judgment to himself, because he is not “discerning the body,” ie., fellow believers v29; the judgment he eats and drinks to himself, is manifested in the weakness, the sickness, and the death of many of them v30.

Even if I were to grant “real presence” in the elements for the sake of the argument, real presence is not in view in v29—“without discerning the body”—because the body spoken of there is the Church, not the body of Christ in the elements.

Remember, the primary context of the epistle is against the factions, and the quarrels among those factions, in the Church (1 Cor 1:10ff); that is reiterated in 11:18-19.
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guanophore:
Another puzzlement I have, why is it so important for Protestants to find ways to make this passage mean something other than what it says?
I am not “making the passage mean something other than what it says,” I am telling you what the text says without reading anything into it.

Something is stopping you from seeing that.

What have I imposed upon the text that is not in the text?
What am I leaving out of the text that is in the text?
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guanophore:
If the reader to admit that Jesus is really referring to his own body, and his own blood, what would the implications be?
Jesus is referring to the Last Supper as a remembrance of His body crucified, and His blood poured out for the forgiveness of sin.
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guanophore:
I can’t see any other reason that so many people left Jesus at that time. Clearly, it was a hard saying for the Apostles also. They wanted to run away too! Peter thought about it, and realized there was no where to run…
Could it be possible that those who left misunderstood what the Lord said?
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by guanophore
I can’t see any other reason that so many people left Jesus at that time. Clearly, it was a hard saying for the Apostles also. They wanted to run away too! Peter thought about it, and realized there was no where to run…
Could it be possible that those who left misunderstood what the Lord said?
No … they did not misunderstand but did not understand … not even the apostles. The John 6 event took place before the Last Supper so Jesus was teaching them what was to be.

People did not leave when Jesus said he was a door or a vine or a shepard. The could recognize symbolic vs. literal language. I believe they all knew he was literal, they could see it in his eyes, hear it in his tone of voice … they knew. You can tell when someone is telling you something truthfully. In my analysis they were either scared or disgusted or both at what Jesus was implying.

John 6 not only is talking about the Eucharist but equally about faith. Just how much of what Christ says can you believe before you too walk away. Peter stayed not because he understood what Christ said but because he believed in Christ … that is faith, not changing the words to make it believable but believing the words. I still ask where does a Protestant interpretation of Scripture ever become more difficult to believe than the Catholic.

Where is it written we get to understand everything?
 
Could it be possible that those who left misunderstood what the Lord said?
No. If so, it would be mentioned in the text, together with the correct understanding of what Jesus meant.

As it stands, we must believe that Jesus meant the words that He was speaking.

It is not enough to believe that Jesus has the words of eternal life. We must hear and believe the words themselves, too.
 
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ncgolf:
No … they did not misunderstand but did not understand … not even the apostles. The John 6 event took place before the Last Supper so Jesus was teaching them what was to be.
There is no linking of the flesh discourse in Jn 6 with the last supper anywhere in scripture. In fact, that discourse in Jn 6 is not mentioned anywhere else in scripture that I can recall; it is an assumption on your part to link those two events.
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ncgolf:
People did not leave when Jesus said he was a door or a vine or a shepard. The could recognize symbolic vs. literal language. I believe they all knew he was literal…
Catholics don’t really take this passage literally, when it comes right down to it.

In order for you to truly take the passage literally, and be consistent in your argument, you must:

(1) Maintain that Christ is truly some mixture of actual grain and wheat, and therefore, truly bread (vv48, 51).

(2) Maintain without any qualification that eating Christ’s flesh is necessary for salvation (v53).

(3) Maintain that believers actually live within Christ’s physical body (v56).

(4) Maintain that by eating the bread, believers will not experience physical death in time (v58).

Which of those do you literally believe, and which do you not literally believe?

If you reject any of those, you are not being consistent in your claim that you take Jn 6 literally.
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ncgolf:
John 6 not only is talking about the Eucharist but equally about faith.
Again, you have not proven any link between Jn 6 and the last supper.

I have already stated that the passage is about coming, believe, and eternal life.
 
There is no linking of the flesh discourse in Jn 6 with the last supper anywhere in scripture. In fact, that discourse in Jn 6 is not mentioned anywhere else in scripture that I can recall; it is an assumption on your part to link those two events.

Catholics don’t really take this passage literally, when it comes right down to it.

In order for you to truly take the passage literally, and be consistent in your argument, you must:

(1) Maintain that Christ is truly some mixture of actual grain and wheat, and therefore, truly bread (vv48, 51).

(2) Maintain without any qualification that eating Christ’s flesh is necessary for salvation (v53).

(3) Maintain that believers actually live within Christ’s physical body (v56).

(4) Maintain that by eating the bread, believers will not experience physical death in time (v58).

Which of those do you literally believe, and which do you not literally believe?

If you reject any of those, you are not being consistent in your claim that you take Jn 6 literally.

Again, you have not proven any link between Jn 6 and the last supper.

I have already stated that the passage is about coming, believe, and eternal life.
Woah Hold it right there.

:tsktsk:

Is this thread about “why are there so many different Christian interpretation?”

Now you are just picking on the Eucharist. If you wish to discuss that topic create another thread.

Thank you
 
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sandusky:
There is no linking of the flesh discourse in Jn 6 with the last supper anywhere in scripture. In fact, that discourse in Jn 6 is not mentioned anywhere else in scripture that I can recall; it is an assumption on your part to link those two events.
Absolutely!! The Gospel account of John does not record the institution of the “Lord’s Supper,” hence, John makes no link with the words Christ spoke to the unbelieving crowd at Capernaum with Christ’s words spoken in the upper room the night of His betrayal. If there was any link at all to be made John would be the most likely candidate to make it since only he recorded the words Christ spoke at Capernaum, but he doesn’t. He doesn’t even record Christ’s words in the upper room. Matt., Mk., & Lk., however, do record the institution of the Lord’s Supper but, conspicuously, do not record the incident at Capernaum recorded by John in chapter six.

Nowhere do any of the Gospels writers link the words of Jesus in Jn. 6 with His later words in the upper room. John six was spoken to an unbelieving crowd in respect to their dire need to believe in Him for life (Jn. 6:35-36), whereas, His words instituting the “Lord’s Supper” were spoken to those who belonged to Him.

Nor do any of the Gospel writers state that what Jesus said at Capernaum to an unbelieving crowd was in anticipation of the institution of the "Lord’s Supper. " Ditto for the writers of the Epistles. The “Lord’s Supper” is an institution for believers not unbelievers.

The link is totally fabricated by men and entirely unsupported by Scripture.

It must also be duly noted that it was those who took Him literally that erred and walked away (Jn. 6:63). I contend that it is those who take Him literally, still, that continue not to apprehend what He said and are prohibited, still, from believing His “words” and coming to Him for eternal life (Jn. 6:68).
 
Woah Hold it right there.

:tsktsk:

Is this thread about “why are there so many different Christian interpretation?”

Now you are just picking on the Eucharist. If you wish to discuss that topic create another thread.

Thank you
Well, techinically it is about hermeneutics. We’re just being specific.
 
It must also be duly noted that it was those who took Him literally that erred and walked away (Jn. 6:63). I contend that it is those who take Him literally, still, that continue not to apprehend what He said and are prohibited, still, from believing His “words” and coming to Him for eternal life (Jn. 6:68).
Wow, Christ says something … people believed what he said, left and then are condemned because they took him at his word. What a concept … taking Christ at his word and being called an unbeliever. Unbelievable.
 
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