T
Tantum_ergo
Guest
Exactly. I don’t think that everybody who says "but it isn’t infallible’ is saying "and that means that someday women could be priests’.Indeed.
And what about teachings that have been definitively defined? Are not those “important to the Church” as well?
See, I just don’t get why it matters whether the teaching on the ordination of women has been defined “infallibly”. It has been defined “definitively”, correct?
Again, it’s like your children saying to you, “You said I had to be home at midnight–and you made that quite clear-- but you didn’t have it written down on the note with the other instructions you gave me…so do I still have to be home at midnight?” :banghead:
BUT. . .I do think that some people who say, "not infallible’ do mean by that that they (personally) believe or even teach that the teaching could in fact ‘changed’ by permitting women to be priests.
And that is a problem. There is no way that a definitive teaching is ever going to ‘reverse’.
The Eucharist is, definitively, bread and wine. It will never turn into something other than bread and wine.
Marriage is definitively between man and woman. It will never turn into man/man or women/women.
And priesthood is for men only. It will not turn into "Oh, and ladies too --because despite what John Paul II said, he only MEANT it as a suggestion for the repressive and anti-woman 20th century, and it was only for the limited time until the Church ‘caught up’ with the modern world and realized it miraculously HAD authority to ordain women all along. . "
**ANY deepening of the teaching will only be in revealing either WHY the Church has no authority to ordain women, OR in revealing why the priesthood is definitively reserved to men. IOW, it will explain more fully why priesthood is for men, and/or why the Church lacks authority to ‘change’ this teaching. **