F
fix
Guest
I am not talking about popularity. I am talking about common sense.Popularity is not a measure of correctness.
When was marriage between two men? Are you saying slavery and Christian persecution are like marriage?Slavery was very popular in the Roman Empire; did that make slavery correct? Christianity was not at all popular in about 50CE, did that make Christianity incorrect?
In order to have any “aberration” you need to have an agreed norm, from which the aberrant versions differ. Which of the different versions of marriage shall we use as the norm? The most popular version in the Western World allows divorce. Does that make the Catholic definition of marriage an “aberration” because it does not allow divorce?
The norm has allows been male and female. This is known from history, logic, common sense, tradition, and observation. Prove otherwise.rossum
All the aberrations do not lead to male/male marriage.